mtvesuvius

Diamond for me, a small one.

I never get good results from leading these interior sequences. I'll lead a club

LOL

I'd sure hope so, although partner always manages to transfer (and pass) into that suit.

My metarule here still applies, and it could even be considered a bit of OS5NT... I'd bid 6♣, 5N for me is pick a slam.

Pass 2♠ on the first one for sure. This hand is suit oriented, and has nice spots... It'd be a shame to have it be fairly useless in 2N. 3N, barring extreme circumstances, I try to almost always bid 3N on the 4M333 hands. This one is no exception.

I'd probably have bid 3♠, but I certainly see the merit of double. Now I think I'm well-placed for a 3N call.

The post in the GIB forum got me thinking, where is the line where passing 2♥ on a 3-2 in the majors is right, and bidding 2♠ is right? Playing a standard 2/1, 15-17 (or 14-16 if you wish) NT, what is your call after 1♠-1N (Forcing)-2♥ with these three hands? Hand 1: [hv=pc=n&s=sj5hk83dk953cj942]133|100[/hv] Hand 2: [hv=pc=n&s=sj5hk83dj9532cj94]133|100[/hv] Hand 3: [hv=pc=n&s=sj5hk83dk953cqt42]133|100[/hv]

GiB is a good robot - It does not execute actions which are false. In any case, leaving you in 2♥ is often right, since you may also be 5-5. Correcting to 2♠ on 8-9 HCP hands may work better since 2♥ could still be fairly strong. This is more of a judgement thing, personally I'd rather be in 2♥.

I bid 3♣, wtp?

OK, I agree with you there. There are certainly other methods out there, I think that bidding 1♠ on the 4324 definitely isn't best... but it's an option. I was also under the impression that you were advocating 1♠ on the long diamond hand as well, which I believe to be awful (that one I feel very strongly on unless playing MAFIA).

When partner tries to sign off, you bid on, easy game. I'm well aware of the other system changes and differences that it might cause. Perhaps you prefer 1♠ partially because you've played a lot of MAFIA responses? (Which BTW I think have a lot of merit)

1. I'd win in hand, play a club to the King and a diamond to my ten, (win the spade return, club to the Ace, another diamond hook). 2. I cash the SA, and lead a diamond. The 4 should be suit preference.

Why praytell would South keycard with a void? As a side note, this auction is no different than 1♠-4♦-4♠ except that opener has even LESS reason to bid on now.

4♠ and 7+m. I have two pages in all my system notes about this exact auction.

Thank you for the grammar lesson. I think it was pretty clear what I meant.

No, but I'm old enough to play that 2♠ is not a reverse here.

Thanks. I'll be quite happy in my fit, you can feel free to go poking around for yours. Make sure you get to bid 3♣ as an Artificial GF while you're at it.

And the 9-5 that forgot to raise.

Heh, yes, my reasoning would be void against a few people. If I was playing against myself, I'd have no idea what I had.

Pass. My suits are crappy, I'm balanced, I have no spots, I have a terrible hand, I have random queens everywhere, and I have a nice lead against 1N. Need I say more?

BBradley, That's why I bid 4♣ and not 5. If you were playing support doubles then there is an even bigger case for bidding 5.

OK, I give this post as many upvotes as legally possible. Well said Kathryn. EDIT: Don't forget the rules of 22 and 1100.

Maybe I'm overthinking this, but... Partner has <4♠, since they didn't bid 2♠ Partner probably has a stiff/void in hearts, 2 on a bad day. Partner has more clubs than diamonds probably. Partner didn't double 2♥, they may not even have 3♠... This means at worst, we are facing a 3244 type hand. I'm quite tempted by 4♣, I think game will certainly have play opposite most hands, but I also don't want to get too high... Although if partner has concentration in ♦, I expect them to have opened 1♦, so it looks like we're facing a 3244 without much wastage, a 3145 with a bit of wastage, or 2146 or something. I feel like I'm missing something, but it seems like 4♣ is a winner.

The 2551 or whatever just doubles 1♠, wtp?