mikl_plkcc

[hv=sn=baskahya&s=SAKT93HAD8765CJ62&wn=mess1&w=S8752HT95DAQT2C75&nn=ackie043&n=SJ4H73DJ43CAKT843&en=mikl_plkcc&e=SQ6HKQJ8642DK9CQ9&d=n&v=b&b=365&a=P1H1SP2C3H4C4H5CPPP&p=DKD5DTD3D9D6DQD4DADJS6D7D2CTCQD8SQSAS2S4CJC5C3C9HAH5H3H2C2C7CAH4H7H6C6HTSKS8SJH8STS5C4HJCKHQS3S7C8HKS9H9]400|300[/hv] I won 10 IMPs by making an "unusual" lead, thinking that opponents may have a void in our suit. Others who arrived at 5♣ and making a ♥ lead made overtricks. ♦ was the only suit that can set the opponents when lead.

Weak gambling 3NT cannot be passed with a void in the minor!!!

I bid 3NT whenever I know there are 25 HCPs in total and no 8-card fit exists. Is this wrong? For the first, I bid nothing; for the second, I bid 2♥, lying (this is the only problematic shape I encounter). I know that I need to run suits for a 3NT contract, but, in most cases, they run their suit before I can run my suit (for example, AKJxx cannot be run when the Q is offside). I had 218 hands played on BBO in the last month. 44 of them were played in 3NT, but only 6 of them were played by me. 4 of them made and 2 of them set. It seems that I have already changed my bidding style to avoid 3NT whenever I have an 8 card-fit found. Earlier, in April, I played 258 hands, 48 hands were played in 3NT, 10 out of 48 were played by me and 9 out of 10 went down! 6 out of 10 times I played worse than DD. The worst one, in terms of tricks, went down 5 when the 8-card diamond fit could not be found while the field was in 3♦! The worst one, in terms of IMPs, got -7.87 IMPs when I played that 3NT-1 when the field made! http://www.bridgebase.com/myhands/hands.php?traveller=M-1334553973-34060236&username=mikl_plkcc When I got to my hand, I ran the diamond suit, but DD analysis afterward showed that I should take a club trick before running the diamond suit!

I don't know if my system is flawed, but about 8 out of 10 3NT contracts go down in my partnership (usually due to a suit run by the opponents), so I avoid 3NT whenever possible.

Currently, I use crawling Stayman to deal with all 4-4 major hands with less than 8 HCPs. My notrump opening, as already mentioned in another post, has the following criteria: Absolutely no voids or singletons No two doubletons No 5-card majors No good 5-card minors (such as AKJxx) I currently play non-forcing Stayman, with 2♥ as crawling and 2♠ as invitational with 5 ♠s and 5 or 4 ♥s which can be passed with ♠ fit. For weak 5-4 or 5-5 hands, I go through crawling Stayman; for invitational 5-4 or 5-5 hands, I either bid Stayman or transfer to ♥, and then bid 2♠, which is non-forcing; for game-forcing 5-4 hands, I use Smolen transfer; for game-forcing 5-5 hands, I transfer to the higher than bid the lower at the 3-level.

If North holds 4 small hearts: [hv=pc=n&s=saqj52hkq93d2ck54&n=sk84hj642dkqjcaq8&d=n&v=b&b=13&a=1np]266|200[/hv] The first two round of bidding will still be the same, but there is no slam. How can I avoid it?

Can the above methods guarantee 5-level safety beyond 4♥, and 6-level safety beyond 5♥? 4♦? How can I know whether the ♦ is first or second round control? I will bid 7 if holding all of the first and second round controls in all suits, if only an 8-card fit is found, the trump Q is also needed. I will bid 6 if holding all of the above but one first round control, or two second round control missing. Can I know that whether I can bid 6♥ safely before reaching 5♥?

I now find that the "stopper" rule of opening 1NT is flawed, but I will still adhere to all other strict rules for opening 1NT: No voids and singletons (as usual); No 5-card majors; No good 5-card minors (such as AKJxx);

Hand 1 [hv=pc=n&s=sjt432ha63d62ck52&d=s&v=0&b=11&a=pp3np]200|300[/hv] Hand 2 [hv=pc=n&s=sa862hqj4dt2cq952&d=w&v=e&b=16&a=p3np]200|300[/hv] Moreover, what should I bid if: I have all outside aces and can count 12 tricks, therefore, wanting opener to bid 7NT if he has an 8-card suit; I have one outside ace missing and can count 12 tricks, wanting to sign off at 6NT.

If they doubled for the lead, we would be in a huge disaster!

I would go 1♣ - 3♣ if it is forcing, but, if 3♣ is not forcing, the system is essentially unplayable with this hand. All my notrump runout systems assume that there cannot be two doubletons in the opener's hand, and all my constructive bidding systems assume that there cannot be a five-card major in the opener's hand. If I open this 2NT, LHO doubles, partner applies the runout system and lands with 6 trumps only, then we will be in a even more trouble. I would reverse into 2♥. P.S. I said nonsense before, picking up this, I would likely to open 1NT.

[hv=pc=n&s=saqj52hkq93d2ck54&n=s984haj72dak6cat8&d=n&v=b&b=13&a=1np]266|200[/hv] 1NT = 15-17, no 5-card majors. A slam should be made, losing a spade only.

If I want to find a minor suit fit, I won't use Stayman but rather transfer or use 2-suited minor bids, therefore, all the new suit bid after Stayman is free. I haven't defined what a new suit bid after a positive response of Stayman mean: 1NT-2♣-2♥-2♠/3♣/3♦ 1NT-2♣-2♠-3♣/3♦/3♥ What do people normally use them for? (This is no longer a N/B problem I admit). Weak suit game try? Jump = cuebid?

re-post, delete

If you don't like splinter, don't like Jacoby 2NT, why don't you use the old forcing raise and use a wide-ranging constructive raise? It then shows nothing about the side suits if you just want to go to game so the opponents will be in a guess when they make the opening lead! 1♥ - 2♥ = 6-11 1♥ - 3♥ = GF

What does 1NT - 2♣ - 2♠ - 4NT mean? Natural or Blackwood? If it is natural, how do I invite ♠ slam? It if is Blackwood, how do I invite NT slam?

100% 1♣ I never open 2NT with this because it will go wrong when partner has a misfitting hand! I have strict rules on opening NT: No voids and singletons (as usual); No 5-card majors; No good 5-card minors (such as AKJxx); No two unstopped suits.

South deals: Old natural system: 1♥ - 3♥ (forcing raise) 4♦ - 4♠ 5♦ - 5♥ What's wrong with it? Opener denied both club controls! With Jacoby 2NT but without splinters: 1♥ - 2NT 3♥ - 3♠ 4♦ - 4♠ 5♦ - 5♥ same as above My advice: don't use splinters! It wastes space for cuebidding! It sounds strange to me that half of the field get to the unmakeable slam!

Clearly a pass to me, I can't stand going to the 4-level with this hand.

Forcing?: 1♦ - 1♥ - 2♣ 1♥ - 1♠ - 2♣/2♦ If they are forcing, the bidding becomes very difficult if holding a non-balanced hand with just 12 HCPs. Another solution: Once a 1/1 has been bid, the auction is forcing to 1NT, but, another issue: How to bid strong two-suiters?! Actually, I plays the following: With 4-4 in the minors, open 1♣ (because it is easier to find 4-4 fits by bidding up-the-line); With 5-5 or longer, open the higher; A 1/1 response is forcing for one round, but no further obligation afterwards; A 2/1 response is at least invitational and forcing for one round; A double major raise is game forcing; A jump response is preemptive and suggests a sub-minimum responding hand; A non-reverse bid after 1/1 is non-forcing; A reverse bid after 1/1 is at least invitational and forcing for one round; A jump bid after 1/1 (no matter the suit has been bid or not) is game forcing; A single raise after 1/1 is invitational; A non-reverse new suit bid after 2/1 is forcing for one-round; A reverse or jump suit bid after 2/1 is game forcing; Then the bidding after 1/1 becomes easy: If you want to force, make a reverse (F1) or jump (GF). If you just want to sign off, bid a non-reverse suit or NT. If you want to invite, make a non-forcing bid. Partner would raise holding invitational hand, then you may go game. (An invitational hand is a hand which makes a game opposite an invitational hand). For example: 1♣ - 1♦ - 1♥ = opener 13-18 1♣ - 1♦ - 1♥ - 2♥ = responder 6-11 1♣ - 1♦ - 1♥ - 2♥ - 3♥ = opener 16-18 1♣ - 1♦ - 1♥ - 2♥ - 3♥ - 4♥ = responder 9-11 1♣ - 1♦ - 1♥ - 3♥ = game forcing, opener should probably cue-bid holding 16-18 1♣ - 1♦ - 2♥ = immediate game-force by opener, suggesting 4 ♥s only As an opener holding 4=1=4=4, I would go: 1♣ - 1♦ 1♠ (responder would pass only holding at least 4♠ and a minimum, otherwise, opener can always return to 2♦) If responder initially bids 1♥, then a diamond fit has already been denied (I always bid 4-card suits up the line): 1♣ - 1♥ 1♠ (again, responder would pass only holding at least 4♠ and a minimum, otherwise, he would probably bid 1NT holding a minimum)

P.S. I missed a very important part: I open 1♣ holding 4-4 in the minors. Therefore, opener suggests a hand about 5 ♦s and 4 ♣s. Not rebidding ♠ = no 6 ♠s Not raising ♦ = no 3 ♦s Not raising ♣ = no 4 ♣s Not responding ♥ = either 5+ ♠s or (4♠s and no 4 ♥s) Therefore, responder's possible shapes after 4SF are: 5=3=2=3 5=4=1=3 5=4=2=2 5=5=1=0 5=5=0=1 (The hand was actually 5=3=2=3)

I now prefer systems that shows shape before strength, because once a fit has been found, we don't need to think about the strength when competing, but only need to consider the number of trumps.

opponents silent 1♦ - 1♠ 2♣ - How to invite a NT slam? 2NT would be invitational to 3NT; 3NT would be a sign-off 4NT would be Blackwood 5NT would be Grand Slam Force; 2♥ would be 4SF, but if opener rebids a suit, then the problem persists. Should I dump Blackwood in this case, agreeing all 4NT after a minor suit bid is invitational to 6NT?

One more thing to remind: If the overcall is a jump, it is usually treated as an opening: (1♥) - 2♠ = 2♠ opening (except that there may be a ♥ void in the overcall but not in the opening)

2♦, just to get more information before making a decision.