mikl_plkcc

[hv=pc=n&s=st5ht4dqcak986542&n=sakj97ha762daj4c3]133|200[/hv] 6NT makes if ♣s break 2-2, however if they break 3-1 and the ♣Q does not drop, even 3NT will be in danger since South is nearly entryless. If ♣s are trumps, again, if the ♣Q drops, there is a slam. If it does not drop, the slam makes when a finesse in either ♠ or ♦ is successful since the extra winner can cover a loser in ♥s. However, if the finesse fails, the opponents are able to draw the ♥ loser immediately. 5♣ is cold in this case. What contract will you bid and how will you bid it? If North deals, 1♠ is opened; if South deals, 4♣ is opened.

6♣. The chance opener having ♥A is extremely small. At unfavourable vulnerability, opener is near certain having both K and Q of ♣. Adding a ♥A will very likely upgrade the hand to a 1♣ opening opening because the hand will contain 9 HCPs already. Moreover, preempting with a void at the first seat is not good bridge.

We would go: 1♠ - 2♥ 3♣ - 3♥ 3NT - 4♥ // I choose 3NT instead of 4♣ because it is a possible option. Be careful when bidding misfitting hands.

Sorry, I can't find any slam perspective at North, even when we are using traditional weak twos. The side suits are just too weak. I just feel that 5♦ is a further preempt.

At the first deal, I think we would: 1♣ - (2NT) - / - (3♥) / - (/) - 3♠ - (/) 4♣ - (/) - 5♣ - (/) / - (//) At the second deal, I think we would: / - 2♣ 2♦ - 3♥ 4♦ - 4♠ 5♠ - 6♠ Explanations: 2♦ = 0 - 1 control(s) 3♥ = to force to game opposite absolutely nothing (2♥ here would be an immediate stop) 5♠ = simple invite, suggesting extras (4NT here would be a sign-off in NT, as no suit has been agreed yet) At the third deal, I think we would: 2♣ - 2♠ 3♣ - 3♠ 4♣ - 5♣ / Explanations: 2♠ = 3 controls Slams are very difficult to bid.

I have recently found that I started to make takeout doubles habitually whenever I have the right shape, i.e. 4-4-4-1 and 5-4-4-0 only. In the past, I would make it holding 10+ HCPs, but now, I seems to always put the double even with 8 HCPs, and sometimes with even only 6 HCPs if the points are good. What would be effect if takeout doubles are consistently made under standard strength?

I would understand it as a hand with about 19-21 HCPs, 5-3-3-2 shape. I would then bid 4NT to invite.

I would have opened 2♣. In this situation, I would bid 3♠, which is forcing in my system.

If I were to open 1 of a suit, I always open the 6-card suit in 6-5. No exceptions.

1NT is the safe harbour for misfitting hands. Using F1NT removes this safe harbour when the responder has a misfitting hand.

The second double is penalty: "Any double over a natural NT bid is a penalty double." The third double is penalty: "Any double after making a penalty double is a penalty double."

IMO: 4. 2♦, certainly. I reserve 3♦ as a forcing bid, which shows extras. I plan to rebid 3♦ after 2♦, showing exactly this. 5. 4♦. I don't feel safe going to 5♦. 6. 2NT, certainly. This is the standard way of bidding balanced hands with 18-19 HCPs.

IMO: 1. I always open the higher of 5-5 or longer suits of equal length, with no exception. I don't think that this is strong enough for a 2♣ bid (1.5 tricks short of game) 2. I don't feel safe going to the 4-level with this auction, so I pass. 3. Every bid is a lie: 2NT: suggests a ♠ stopper; 3♣: suggests 5 ♣s 3♦: suggests 6 ♦s 3♥: suggests 3 ♥s 3♠: suggests 3 ♠s so I choose 3♦.

Yes, I can stop here. 4m is a fallback contract when it is decided that 3NT is a bad contract.

1: 3♥, certainly. 2: 1♥ - 2♦ 3♣ - 3♠ 3NT Sorry, I can't think of stopping this hand anywhere except 3NT. East's diamonds are not strong enough to pull it to 4♦. 3: I would lead a ♣. 4: Against a suit slam, I always lead an ace unless the bidding suggests a void in the suit. 5: X, then bid ♣.

In my system, adjusted to 2/1, goes 1♥ - 1♠ 2♥ (not enough to make a GF 3♥ rebid) - 3♦ (responder's new suit is still forcing) 3♥ (I have SOLID hearts!!!!! Please don't argue with me!) - 3NT (to play)

Doesn't 4♠ show a FIRST round control in ♠?!

Not a great slam. 5♣ is the best.

I would stretch to rebid 2NT with 5=2=2=4, even with only half a stopper in ♥s. Therefore, a rebid of 2♠ nearly always shows 6 ♠s. I don't want to lie about my ♠ length.

I'm not happy. But I am not happy with the opponents making an easy 1♣ either.

Aren't HCPs accurate for playing NT with balanced hands?!

If my system is used in all seats: W - N - E - S 1♠ / 2♣ 2♥ X 3♥ 3♠ / 5♣ / / //

North deals: 2♣ (20+ unbal or 22+ bal or 1.5 trick short of game) - 2♠! (3 controls) 3♣ (5+ clubs) - 4♣ (agree clubs) 4♦ (cuebid) - 5♣ (no more to cue) 5♥ (insist, grand interest, heart first round since it hasn't been skipped yet) - 5♠ (spade second round since it is skipped earlier) 7♣ (spade K can discard diamond loser) It is so easy, isn't it?

4NT, then correct to 5♥ after 5♦

I always rebid 1♠ in order not to miss 4-4 ♠ fits. In my system, bidding 1NT denies the ability to bid 1 of a major up-the-line.