andy_h

http://forums.bridgebase.com/index.php?showtopic=26334&hl=

Maybe the OP is not aware of other conventions and just plays default 2/1 and is asking based on that. He's given an ok description so I'm sure if there were other agreements involved it would have been mentioned.

I play it as 5422 minimum with no controls in the minors. With a decent 13/14 with 5332 or 5422 I would raise it to 3H. With a minimum 5332 I would rebid 2S then bid 3H.

What's wrong with 3H? This is NV MP's, LHO has opened and RHO has responded and we have a stiff Q.

4D for me as well.

I agree that consistency is a good starting point in designing a system. That way it's easier to remember while you can get used to it/learn the implications of (lack of) bids. But once you get used to it, you start to realise that many situations will come up in which you would need exceptions and bridge is always about exceptions. And soon enough maybe those exceptions will turn to "another consistency". For example, the (1m) - p - (1H) - 2H is natural, so thereby you may have the tendency that the 4th seat's bid of opponents suit is natural. It also applies if the auction was like (1m) - X - (1M) - X/2M, meaning penalty or natural. So this pretty much agrees with what jdonn has said.

gotta love shubi

I'll pass. I expect this to get a decent score given that it's nil vul and we have the T8 of clubs. Of course, if they run to another suit I can still get to 3NT or 4S if needed. That's IF they run.

Yeah, I don't need a good hand to overcall 1D. Understand that it creates cuebids/space for opps, but the upsides are for lead directional and that partner may be able to create LESS bidding space by preempting. As to the actual hand, I think I'll pass. I agree that the auction just screams for a double, but diamonds are typically 5431 around and if declarer needs any heart finesses they are onside.

My choices are either 3H or 2NT. Given that I'm 4333 think I'll lean towards 2NT.

I will never understand these delayed (prebalance!..?) overcalls, but it can certainly create some unfamiliarity when either responder or even opener, doubles. Anyway having said that, I agree with 3D.

This seems a bit hard. We're wanting to try and tell partner we have slam aspirations and whilst needing to know what his best suit is so we can declare it from the correct side. It seems to me that playing in a suit contract will be by far better on this hand than 6NT would be, if partner rates to have x or xx in hearts and hopefully won't have a mirrored shape. If I bid 2NT lebensohl now (never have I bid lebensohl with such a strong hand lol) I've still got no idea what to do after partner bids 3C. He will be pretty much bidding 3C on a lot of hands unless he has a *monster*, so I don't get how 2NT will obtain much information from partner. So maybe I should just bash 6S...or maybe 2NT then bid 5S? Whatever that means..

3H. Over partner's 4D I cue 4S.

How do you use the various bids after 1♥ (1♠)? Jump shifts are splinters new suits forcing We also have a forcing balanced raise (not game forcing) Like maggieb suggested, fitshowing jumps and splinters should show different things. Fitshowing jumps can identify potential trick source and it can also allow partner to judge high level competitive auctions (if partner knows about the secondary fit etc). Splintering just doesn't do that job, and if it does, how does partner know which cards are "fitting" well. Let's say I had KJxx support for partner and AKTxx(x) on the side. I would like to be able to show both things in one bid rather than to make a 2/1 forcing bid and then support partner since the auction may get very high before you even show your support (not suggesting that you do it, just mentioning it as a potential problem if fitshowing jumps aren't played). Quite funny as you mention this, because I remember a hand from Beijing where splintering would get you to a grand very easily whilst a fitshowing jump makes it a tad tougher. Think the hand was something like: [hv=d=w&v=b&n=sxhadaxxxcaqtxxxx&w=sqxhkqj9xdkqjtxcx&e=st9xxxhtxxxdxxxcx&s=sakj8xhxxxdxckj9x]399|300|Scoring: IMP[/hv]

Think I'm a passer. The opps are red so they'll likely have their preempt and I have a pretty boring 15 count with only HT as the tenace. Maybe if partner has a random flat 10 count, we don't have that many finesses through our righty. Also agree that partner has an auto double.

Same camp with Josh.

Think it's normally None/Low/High

Routine 3NT yes indeed.

I like to play all jumps are fit jumps and if it's the opponent's suit it's a splinter. I like to be able to distinguish the level of offensiveness based on a 3 or a 4level jump. A hand with long diamonds I tend to bid 2D.

I'm assuming there will be 3 passes to South who opens 1♦. My auction would go something like p - p - p - 1♦ 1♠ - X - 2♠ - 3♣ p - 3♥ - p - 4♥. X was negative, intending to bid my hearts after partner's rebid showing a hand with 6+♥ and not enough to make a 2/1. When partner then bids 3♣ and not a X, he most likely doesn't have 3♥ (lack of takeout/support double, if you play that) and so his shape is most likely 1264 or 1255 or 1165. Since the former two shapes is more likely, I'm going to bid 3♥.

I agree with the crowd that I am pulling this to 6♦. 5♠ is almost always going to be a fit-bid and not natural because partner didn't pre-empt as dealer (unless he's walking the dog in which he can still bid however more spades he wants after 6♦).

You occasionally get into 3-3 fits? I've once defended against a 3-3 fit on this type of 1m-1M-2M auctions. The opponents even had on their card that they would often respond with a 3cM. -300 wasn't a good result for them :)

3H. 3 bullets and 6-4 makes this a pretty good hand for me.

I also pull this to 5H. I don't really want to defend holding a 6-5 with a 10 card fit. LIke others, I would have preferred 4D on the previous round. I do play both 3D and 4D as fit jumps, it just depends how strong/distributional your hand is.

2D, but no hard feelings for 1NT.