Hanoi5

So I was just lucky?

What if the opponents get to 5♠? What would you lead with East-s hand?

[hv=d=w&v=n&n=skjxxxxxhadqjcqj10&w=sh9xxxxxdak108xxca&e=s10xxhkxd9xxc9xxxx&s=saqxhqj10xdxxckxxx]399|300|Scoring: IMP[/hv] This was the complete hand.

I was finishing a lesson on the subject.

Would you be so kind as to link me to hands where I can show the difference in play, defense and bidding between Matchpoints and teams bridge? Thanks in advance.

[hv=d=w&v=n&s=sh9xxxxxdak108xxca]133|100|Scoring: IMP[/hv] You're West.

Games are supposed to be declared, IIRC, at teams at 40% if Vul. or 60% if not. I don't want to ask (though it would be wonderful if you could tell me) how to calculate this percentage when bidding, I just want to know why is it 60% and 40%, what's the math behind it. Thanks in advance.

What should the policy at each of these should be, regarding part-scores? I guess I should play the safest at imp's but be a little bit bolder at MP's sometimes choosing NT or 7-card Major fit instead of a minor. Am I right?

What gwnn said.

5♥, I'll pass 5♠ but can persuade them not to lead hearts if pd goes to 6...

I was gonna go with no signal, but I think each case has to be thought out carefully. I'd use either no signal or lenght in trump suit, the latter to show whether I can ruff.

I don't like the idea of changing the imp scale. I don't see any reason for that. A 10-point difference shouldn't matter, for then we'd be playing no trump instead of the Majors as in MP. However, I do not like the VP scale where if you win TOO MUCH you still only get 25! What about 26, 27, 28, 29 and 30!

You mean I should have passed his double?

Well I said 3NT and my partner passed. Who's to blame then?

This is partner's hand: [hv=s=sqjxhxdakxxxcqxxx]133|100|[/hv] Who should be blamed for not arriving to a slam?

(1)But I still make it if ♠KJ is doubleton or the K third. (2)But I lose against singleton K in West and against the present condition. (3)And I make it anyway after putting up the Ace with those conditions.

[hv=d=n&v=n&s=saj10haxdakqj10xcxx]133|100|Scoring: BAM[/hv] It goes: 3♣ X 4♣ 4♥ Pass ???

[hv=d=w&v=n&n=sahjxxxxdjxxxcq9x&s=sq108xxhaqxxxdacax]133|200|Scoring: IMP[/hv] Let us just say you got to 6♥ without adverse bidding (except your own :) ) and receive a diamond lead. Was my line nearer 20 or 50%?

Isn't the double asking for a stopper to play 3NT? I mean, how would he do that anyway?

Then let me continue the bid: Pass 1♣ Pass 1♦ 1♥ 1♠ 3♥* X Pass ??? What now?

Playing in a butler tournament you open 2nd hand: [hv=d=n&v=e&s=sak87ha64dcaj8xxx]133|100|Scoring: IMP[/hv] Pass 1♣ Pass 1♦ 1♥ ???

How does letting the heart 10 guarantee the cointract? What if a spade comes back?

I was gonna win in dummy to hide my Queen, but now I believe it is better to win the Queen, play the 10 of hearts and notice how LHO reacts (unless at the internet) and if it is not covered or there was no pause I'l play AKQ of heart and give up a heart if neccessary. I'l play ♦J if need be.

You're West. [hv=d=n&v=n&s=s8xxxxhq10987xd8ck]133|100|Scoring: BAM[/hv] None Vul. Dealer North N E S W 3♣ X 4♣ ??? Does the scoring matter?

I'd bid 5♦ instead of doubling the second time.