Apollo81

1♠ for the lead.

3♠ was obviously a psych, so I will bid 6♦. Usually when they psych like this they are hoping they will get doubled.

Prebalancing in this situation is much more dangerous than after a single raise for a few reasons: 1. The opponents do not necessarily have a fit. 2. The strong hand has the shorter trumps, increasing the likelihood that he has a good 4-card holding in your partnership's best suit (the case where you would be doubled). 3. The limited hand is much stronger. That said, prebalancing here has some merit since partner won't balance with a good hand and spade length. This tactic is most appropriate non-vulnerable at matchpoints, where small minus scores can be big wins and huge negative numbers don't have as much of an impact on the final session results.

A 'sub-Moysian' is known to me as a 4-2 fit, which is more often playable than a 3-3! Also known to me as a 4-2, I thought this was an old term

A lof of the time in this situation, if you bid the next thing you know you'll be defending 4♠ making.

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Partner could have 6 hearts or 7 hearts or 8 hearts too (actually last time I saw an auction like this he had 8). If he has 5 hearts then he may have 3 spades as well. Given RHO has a bunch of minor cards (and so do we) partner rates to have a bunch of hearts. Even if LHO wants to penalize 2♥, many people won't have discussed passes of redoubles, and I predict RHO will run to a minor in such a case.

To explain why this is an opening hand: if partner has Qxxx QJx Axxx Kx, you're cold for 3NT. He won't bid it opposite your preempt because most of the time youll have a hand like x Kx xxx QJ10xxxx

BTW, even if you don't believe everyone here, the ACBL teaching materials instruct the student to count distribution points when deciding whether to open.

I disagree. I think the term trap pass refers to any pass with a holding that is strong enough to bid (in an auction that is likely not passed out). Adam is right. "Trap pass" means 'pass, setting a trap for the opponents' The trap is sprung by the reopening double and subsequent pass of the double.

I really doubt that LHO would bid 6♠ if we have a trick coming in clubs, so I will lead ♥K.

First of all, if it was a weak NT, you should have mentioned that in your OP. Second, whether or not you should bid 2♠ over 2♣ is completely irrelevant. You have an obvious 2♠ call on the third round after 2♦pp which is presumably what was going to happen, and partner has an obvious raise to game.

1. XX. The opps just made a serious error. 2. 3NT. RHO's reason for not preempting earlier is probably because he has 4 spades. 3. Depends on system. I would want to use a checkback bid, and all the better if I have a GF one like 2♦ in 2-way NMF.

No/No

Ok so that range is 1 point lighter than I said. I guess I make takeout doubles a little more liberally than normal. I would bid 2♠ with Axxxx xx xxx Axx, but this is a WAY better hand than the 9 count we're talking about. Also I guess 12 hcp + no spots + only 4 cards in the major + non-working HCP in their suit is a normal game force? That seems weird to me. As for the BWS comment, it seems strange that one would raise with a 4414 14-HCP hand but pass with a 17-count. At least I think the OP hand is certainly an Ace better than a minimum takeout double with 3424 shape. Anyway change the ♥Q to a jack and I agree it's a pass.

I don't understand the pro's comment. What if he had Axx KQ10x Jx AKJx and his RHO bid 3♠ over your 2♦? Wouldn't he either double or bid 3NT? Either way you are risking a worse score than your cold 4♥.

It's between double and pass.

One man's insane is another man's obvious. What do you think 2♠ shows? Nope, although I'll grant you are consistent. Partner denied enough for game and the support is xxx, bidding would be very undisciplined. For lack of a more precise definition a hand worth 10-12 "total points" upgrading liberally, so arguably I should be bidding 2♠ with the OP hand. I don't think a balanced 9 count with only 4 spades, no spots whatsoever, and a poorly placed ♦K is appropriate for that 2♠ call.

Well, if North had a small diamond instead of the ♦J, 2♠ would be insane. Thus it's close. You don't think South's hand is worth a bid over 1♠? If you don't want to pass, I don't see many good choices.

I don't think it's a normal preempt, but I would open 2♥ regardless of scoring. In my mind the biggest danger is that we get the wrong lead, not that we go for a number. The playing strength of this hand is fine. Thus I am happier with this decision at IMPs, where a bad lead only costs if the contract wouldnt have made on a better lead. A hand like xx KJxxx xx xxxx is a hand where I would preempt at MPs 3rd fav (for the lead) but not at IMPs bc of the high number risk.

I've done it on worse 4-card heart suits than that one =)

I would just write "have fun" on it

7NT because of the ♣10 and because even a bad field should get to 6NT on these cards.

I would want to open 1♦ and rebid 1♠ on all of these hands. I'm not used to playing a Precision style where this shows diamonds also. If this sequence does show diamonds then I would treat the first two of these as weak notrumps and open 2♣ with the last one. Again on the first two I would want to open 1♦ and rebid 1♠. My second choice would be opening 1♦ and rebidding 1NT. The third one looks like a normal Precision 2♦ opener.

I would want to be in 3NT by North on (1♦)-X-(p)-1♠ (p)-2♠-(p)-3NT I think this has excellent chances. If you want a line of play then give us the declarer and opening lead.