Apollo81

None Vul, IMPs ♠Jx ♥x ♦T9876x ♣AKTx 1♥*-(pass)-1NT-(2♠) pass-(pass)-??? * Precision

None Vul, IMPs ♠Jx ♥AQJxx ♦K9x ♣Jxx (1♣)-pass-(2♠)*-??? * weak

It would be nice if an admin would please remove "open in standard only" and change "all of above" to "always open" I should be more careful making these polls.

All Vul, IMPs, 1st seat ♠Kx ♥Jxxx ♦Kxxx ♣Axx ???

All Vul, IMPs ♠9xxx ♥xxx ♦xxx ♣AJx (1♦)-pass-(2♥*)-Dbl (3♥)-pass-(pass)-Dbl (pass)-??? * weak

All Vul, IMPs ♠Jxxx ♥Qxx ♦--- ♣AJTxxx pass-(1♣)-1♦-(pass) ???

Favorable, IMPs ♠AJx ♥Ax ♦Qxxxx ♣Jxx The bidding: 1NT*-(Dbl)-2♠*-(Dbl) 3♣*-(Dbl)-3♥*-(3♠) 5♦-(5♠)-pass-(pass) ??? 1NT: 10-12 2♠: 6+♣ or 5-5 or better red suits (3♣ here by responder would be to play) 3♣: club fit, doesn't promise a red suit fit 3♥: 6-5 or better red suits (either longer)

I don't see anything wrong with what happened at the table. Seems like either North or South could have run from 2♠x also....

4♠

Maybe I didn't understand the OP. It appears to say 2♦ shows a strong 2NT opener. Anyway my point was that I'm not worried about getting doubled and that's why I bid.

In the context of transfer advances, i play 3♦ as an invitational or better hand with heart support. 3♣ in this context is a general force that can either be used for hands with clubs or for balancedish hands without 3+ hearts and without a sufficient diamond stopper for 3NT.

2♠, they're not going to double us since we're fav

All Vul, IMPs ♠Axxx ♥Kx ♦xxx ♣QJxx 1♦-1♠ 3♣-?

1♦ includes that... This is what I was referring to when I said "This forces you to use another super-valuable 1-level opening to show a set of hands that would normally use two different 1-level openings, and that aren't similar in any meaningful way."

Why on earth wouldn't I just cash ♣K and give partner his club ruff, giving suit preference for hearts? Am I missing something? Do I not trust partner's signal?

A new suit by responder at the 3-level is forcing to game.

By far the biggest problem with this is that you are using a super-valuable 1-level opening for a very specific set of hands (4441s) that won't occur very often. Hence this is almost a wasted bid. This forces you to use another super-valuable 1-level opening to show a set of hands that would normally use two different 1-level openings, and that aren't similar in any meaningful way.

Just out of curiosity... was the auction (3♠)-Dbl-(5♠)-7NT?

So you don't think the auction makes West at least twice as likely to hold the ♥Q than East? I do, I think it's fairly close, and I'm open to being told I'm wrong. If I had KQxx(x) of my partner's suit and nothing else, then I would probably bid 6♠ at favorable. Also some people might not preempt on JTxxxxx Qxx x xx because the hand is triply flawed (bad suit, Qxx hearts, low tricks).

I would have bid - 3NT over 2NT with the South hand. - 3♥ over 2♥ with the North hand.

thanks

I'll call it a 5, which I think means int+/adv- Intermediate level players may not think to get the count of the hand by cashing their minor winners, nor may they realize that the hand is makeable if RHO has ♥Tx I don't think it's as easy as the other votes indicate because if RHO were to appear to have 3 hearts, then I would guess to try the surrounding play (which even adv- players may not see).

agree

1♠-2♥ 2♠-3♣ 3♦-3♠ 4♠-4NT etc

How could South ever sit for 3NT?