dake50

If 3S in 3rd seat is typical my call is a toss-up. But if a deviation, likely to barrage our Hearts. I try 4H.

Sidelight: do I have 2-suited overcalls to suggest not that other major? Should they then be introduced especially for this problem? Those limit the top of T/O double.

You mean partner volunteered 3S instead of pass AND this hand won't go game? What am I missing? Someone thinks this is not 47+% to make? Really??

Let me guess 2N may have a 4xM when tenaced/quacky, so "checkback" 3C and found 4-4/4-3 H-fit with only 1xS-stop.

What would a "trappish" pass then double look like? Whatever that hand is, IT is not in the current direct action.

With my 3xH losers I'm scared off 5D. But 4S on 3-4 vs. 1-4/0-5 split --that's an adventure I'd try.

Yes, I see a risk in 3C with partner backed into my weak 6xD. But, I do have H-Qx, a good 4xC, SA single, how will partner picture this much with his H-AKxxxx? H-AKxxx?

No. The raise should promise some chance for a second trick. Opener had 2S to ask for even one trick, didn't he?

DAPO 3S showing D+C. Now partner's 4S must promise 5xS.

Solid Major with side void. Then Namyats 4C,4D uses all 4xAces.

Does partner's double promise near 4DT bal or could be 6D4S? 4S too big a chance for 4H-X making. Besides they bid 5H, HAH. And 3C always.

How big a heart suit would partner not open or 2H on 5xH eg. HAQ10xx? In my partnership with a light 1H opener, no chance 2H,3H is on. So 2C.

Partner really wanted to get his hearts into this auction. I have 3xH and S-single. 4H.

Immediate splinters are well defined, #1 makes it. Delayed splinter on #2; get good 5xD needing DQ into auction.

Does partner expect 5xS if I try 4S? Ie 6D 5S? Or 4S = 6D 4xS and big offense hand? I always open 5xS, so only 4xS is possible, and 5D clear if no 3+S. No C interest possible. How could partner distinguish this 6Dsolid4xS with at most DA likely DT from semi-bal 18 if I double?

Is S-Kx sufficient support for partner's overcalls? Mine is, so 2S.

I start 2D and delayed H-splinter. Tell partner D-KQ, C-A, S-K, H-xxx is gold.

Is 'sandwich 1NT' on by passed hand to get in with distributional 2 suiter unbids? Not if poster is asking. Why not? I rather like 2C here as where I live, cannot support S or D lead. Maybe 3C plays.

Absolutely! Why on earth did partner choose the Q-bid? Not raise, jump raise, new suit force, 2N,3N nat/art, X to follow strong? Could he have been stuck with DT and good support? AND intended that message?

Might I step into a forcing pass invite to slam with 0-1xS and good controls that gets accepted and 6H makes? Naw, 5S-x is surely cheap --just not as cheap as 4S-x.

To a game-try double, South has D-single for a D-ruff, likely C-K for a trick, plus a 5-suit headed by Q? And this is too little?! Could the 2H over 2D be S-Qx, H-xxx, D-xxx, C-Qxxx? or similar such garbage?

Blast 3N. Close on pure hcp adding: 10+13=23; 12+13=25 with H coming home often.

How to stay out of slam? Stop in 4H. Who has extras? Who sees a big double fit with controls?

What would 4D Q-bid show or start showing? Now, what is left to 4N?

What consideration for weak 1N has pre-planned scrambles. Now X is penalty AND X of pre-scramble is penalty AND know to sit for 2C-X when D-xxxxx C-QJxxxx with a few D-ruffs from 1N opener = DISASTER double game swing.