benlessard

The most important fact is will partner bid 3Nt with an unstopped suit or can he make an offshape jumpshift ? (because if he tend to have stop in all the suit then hes got the A of C) My answer is not often because its a bit of masterminding to jump to 3nt shutting partner out and let him go down losing the first 5 tricks when both 4M makes ! So i expect 3Nt to make close to 99% of the times. If for systemic reason partner doesnt promise show stops in all 4 suits then ill bid 4C forcing wheiter its keycard or not

♠ KQ2 ♥ A3 ♦ AKJ9732 ♣ 6 ♠ J54 ♥ 8765 ♦ 1086 ♣ AK3 1D (at least 4 unbal) -----1H (nat 6+) (bypassing a 4M with no positionnal values is jsut bad IMHO) 2C (showing 6D)----------2D (2D is non-inv & doesnt show support) 2S -(3?6 reverse)-------- 2nt (show clubs stopper or positionnal holding in clubs Qx) GF 3D-(solid D keyC)--------3H 3H is 14, 3nt would have been not interested 3S (Q of trumps ?) -------4C (yes but denies K of S) 4D (K of H ?) --------------4H (no) 5C-(GST)-------------------??? 4S would have ask for the K of C 4Nt would have ask for the Q of S 5D would have been Soff. so by inference we can deduce that partner has a stiff clubs & the Q of S. Hes got at least 3 keycards, no voids at least 2H & 7D. So WTP ? partner couldnt not have 3H he would have made a delayed h raise. partner could be AKQ xx AKxxxxx x and keycarding even without a H control (its a suit we have bid) or KQx AX AKxxxxx x From partner POV i could have AJxx in S and QD. Qx in H with 4S + an A. So 5C is the perfect bid. With the K of clubs and the J of S i have an easy 6D i think. In theory we should be able to bid it in practice we often missed those fairly tough but far from impossible slams. Congrats to those who are able to bid it. For us GF with D is a trick stronger then this hand. But if we open 1C followed by 3D its surely going to be tougher. This is the perfect hand for why i dont like the limited D in a precision system.

PH 4S is a raise to 5C with the possibility to play 4S . 4Nt shouldnt not be anything else then a general slam try. I truly hope you dont play 1430 keyC for clubs. You should bid 5C since your hand is far from perfect. Seems like you are having a hard times with those both m hands B)

We play 1D is at least 4 unbalanced, 2C could be (5C,4M) and 2D is weak. So with the 4414 we have to lie into a weak nt,a strong nt or a 1M opening its not something im proud of but for us the usefulness of a preemptive 2D far outweight the specific case of the 4414. 2D multi & 2H with hand short in D is possible but again i dont think its worth it. For the (34)15 or 4405 Its difficult for me to asses the effectiveness of a 2D openings because of a lack of practice of those method. But with those hand I have no problems opening them 2C. The competitive auction argument is a weak argument because the guarantee of a the 3rd (or in our case a 4th diamond) is a better deal then a 6th clubs. IMHO the main reason why top player tend to shorten the 1D bid is because they are are not satisfied with the old precision methods to answer 2C. My feeling is that if you think that opening 2C is a weak part of your system then your responses systems aint up to date. Because 2C opening for many pairs give them a steady income of IMPs compared to natural methods. In MP imho 2C with a good responses structure break even with those playing natural. Only the polish club is getting an edge for the the club suit since some of their club suit hand can be opened 1C, 2C or 1D.

It would never cross my mind to pass 1D. If partner doesnt have C support this hand is probably going nowhere, a Club contract is by far the most probable denomination that we are going to play. Wanting to play in D is a honorable goal but coming back at the 3,4,5 level with a 65 is going to be annoying. Parter could have 5H and youre going to take a phantom save quite often if you pass and reopen later. Even 4C could be X -2 for 300 with them going down in 3H. Partner distribution could easily be 5-5-1-2, 5-4-2-2. Also by passing you lose some opportunity where the opps will reach 4H and your partner will gladly X with his 5 trumps. Also if the opp reach a game in a good M fit partner will never find the cheap save. I agree. But like i said in my earlier post. Bidding 2C might not automatically stop you from playing in D. And coming back at 3D and concealing a 5 clubs suit (which is by far the suit where you are likely to have more trumps) isnt misdescribing ? crack the whip yes but at wich level ? and with a strong 65 i like to crack the whip twice. Do you really think youre going to play 1DX (or 1MX) on this deal ? if the opps have all the remaining strenght maybe partner going do bid a preemptive jump with 6H and 4C or with 5S and 4C. The thing im wondering is 1D---pass----1H---pass 2H----2Nt Why would 2Nt show both minors ? why not JTxxx x xx AQxxx 1D---pass----1H---pass 2H----3D-----pass-----pass 3H----??? here however the 3Nt to show a goodish hand with both m is available and is a better call then 4C.

I would pass 4 C. I play that a 2Nt by him would show S&C (not both m) so hes surely 65+/74/3055 in my book. But with a very good hand i expect partner to bid 2C with a 5C suit and not passing. So that why ill aim for + 130. I know my hand is great but at the same time i like to give leeway to my partners for competing in partscores. I remember a similar hand where the bidding did go. (im not sure if opps had H or S) 1D ----2C----X--------pass 2S----3D----pass-----??? We were playing that 4C over 1D would show C + S GF. And obviously both 2C & 3D were slow bids wich add some ethics annoyement. It really doesnt make sense to play 3D as natural but at the same time i couldnt see any other meaning to the 3D bid other then a strong 65 in the minors. The alternative were that partner was sandbagging with a vstrong clubs suit so distributionnal that he knew the bidding wouldnt go pass,pass,pass and decided to bid 2C instead of X or a 3D cue. 3D as natural is a bid im sure i would not have the balls to do. But what else could it be ?

Partner think that 6S is a cheap sacrifice so with my AKQx lets just say that 7S is going to be cheap too. I don't think a pseudo lightner X will push the opps to 7H. Im not really fond of taking insurances bids. But this seems like a clearcut case.

You dont need to play 1Nt as GF. Just play it as relay 6+ This is what we play ---------1S ??? 1Nt = 6+ relay 2C = C + higher suit 6-10 NF + no tol for S 2D = D + H 6-10 no tol for S 2H = H 9-11 not tol for S 2S = H 9-11 tol for S rest are transfer nice 6 carder 6-10 1S (12-14 or 18-22) ----1Nt 6 pts+ relay ??? 2C = 4D 2D = 4H 2H = 6S 2S = 5S+4C (12-14) 2Nt = 5224 (18-22 GF) 3C = 5??5 no void (18-22) 3D = 5314 (18-22) 3H = 5134 (18-22) 3S = 6??4 no void rest are voids 1S (12-14 or 18-22) -----1Nt relay ? 2C (4D) ----------------- ??? here 2D and 2S are preference and 2H is GF relay the rest are GF natural relay breaker. 1S ----1Nt 2D ---- ??? 2H/2S preference 2Nt GF relay rest are GF nat ----------1h ??? 1S 6+ relay 1Nt 6-10 one suiter no h tol 2C = C + other S 6-10 2D = D+S no h tol 2H = S 9-11 + H tolerance 2S = S 9-11 no h tol 1H -----1S (6+ relay) ??? 1Nt =(4C still 12-14 or 18-22) 2C = 4D 2D = 6H 2H = H+S (12-14) 2S = 5h/5s 18-22 2Nt = 4522 18-22 3C = 4513 18-22 3D = 4531 18-22 3H = 46?? 3S + = voids The trick is by putting the 2nd rebid by opener in transfer both the jump shift hands and the weak hands are bid in the same manner. Our openenig are 12-14 or 18-22 . So if responder is weak (6-10) he make a preference in opener suits if responder is GF he make the cheapeast GF bid if responder is weak but opener is 18-22 then opener keep the bidding open by continuing after the preference we dont need invitationnal hands because our 15-17 hands with a 5M are opened a 1C strong. These are Non-forcing non-inv relays so its superchart . [hv=n=saqxxxhaxxdxck8xx&s=skjtxxhktxdaxxcat]133|200|[/hv] 1S ----1NT ? 2S (S+C 12-14) ----- 2NT GF relay 3D (5314) -----3H S keycard 4H (2+Q+ K♣ no K♥)------6S S & C are the 2 toughest suit for us. The biggest downside are our 1M opener need to be unbalanced so with balanced 5M (12-14) we open a weak Nt. send me a personnal message and ill be glad to send you the full system or play a against you in BBO. If you have any tough 1M hand ill be glad to show you an example.

What worries me is the fact opps bid 3S red vs W at macthpoint with probably a low HCP hand.So im expecting a 5-5 or a void for RHO. Ill just bid 4S to put emphasis on slam. If partner bid 5C or 5D ill pass if he bid 4Nt ill bid 5NT (P-A-S) 3Nt is a close 2nd. I also agree with Jlall that its possible to pass a 3level responsive X with a Stiff. The way i see it is that the initial TO X tend to show 0,1,2 spades. So passing with 2 pulling with 0 is close to automatic. With 1 pass or pull depend on the shape of the hand

Boy there is a lot of stuff on this 1. (Assume a standard natural system) 1- I ll never play 1Nt forcing by a passed hand. 1Nt natural is just too valuable for me. 2- I rarely open light in 4th. 3- I see no reason to open complete rubbish in 3rd seat. My 3rd seat opening are either lead directing or very close to a real opening. with AKQ JTxxx xx xxx Ill prefer to pass or to open 1S but i know many that will open 1H and i have to disagree with them. 3- I dont mind opening 3rd with a 4M card (lead directing) or making a weak 2 with 4- I dont like 2 way drury and i much prefer reverse drury then old school drury. 5- I prefer to play 2D as drury because i like the natural NF 2C wich show a club preempt and is clearly sugesting that 2C is the best spot (NF and denies fit.) with x QJx xxx KQTxxx i like to be able to play 2C. The 5-10 pts hands where you want to play 2C and dont really want to play 1NT or in 2D are much more frequent then the almost forcing foward going 2C (10-11 pts). Since we have a weak 2 in D but not in clubs i prefer to use 2D as drury. 6- Its really a good idea to play some kind of limit raise and to be able to stop in 2M. In IMP's playing 3M in non-comp auction is just something i avoid. 7- In 1-2 seat I do believe 2C art can be used as a psych controls. So i think its fair to forbid 2C as an art INV if the players frequently psych but for those who don't Drury was and will always be legal. In Canada there is an increasingly numbers of players who used 2C as GF natural or limit raise. When it goes --------pass 1S----2C! 2S----3Y 3S----pass pass and responder hand is something like AKxxx x KJx xxxx you should call the director and he would probably rule the the 2C a psych control if the pair is known for psyching.

1- Despite being an automatic falsecard i think that the average club will not find this falsecard and even in a "A" field some players will miss it. So in a club against unknown opps ill finesse. In a stronger field against unknown opps its tougher. 1- most weak/average player that will find the falsecard will do it with the J from JTx and rarely the T from JTx. 2-What LHO a safe lead ? Often in slam they will lead trumps holding JTx instead of making a risky lead. 3- If you play for the drop and it failed can you make a trump reduction ? 4- since there is a slight tendency to play J instead of T from JT i think that at higher level ill play for the drop. Playing the J from JT or from JTx jsut seems a higher percentage then a stiff J. If LHO had played the T i would have finesse against all except the tops opponents.

We play 1nt --- 2C ??? 2D almost a forced “puppet”(waiting) (we bid that 90+% of the time) 2H 5H minimum 2S 5S minimum 1nt ----- 2C 2D ------ ??? ______pass = soff in D at least 5D ______2H = inv with 4H (NF) could have 4S also ______2S = inv with 4S (NF) denies having 4H ______2NT = force 3C (Clubs) (Soff or GF) ______3C = GF Romex stayman 1nt ------- 2D (inv with a 5M+ or with a 6m+ or without M or SLAMMISH with 10 card in M) ??? (pass or correct responses at the 2 level 2H = opener refuse a H INV 2S = opener accept H Inv but refuse S Inv 2nt = Accept Both M inv but refuse bal INV (3m is INV 3M is F) ***********ROMEX STYLE 3C = MAX GF asking for 5M (at least 3 in both M or 32 without weak doubleton) 3D = MAX with 5S /5233/ (with weak H) 3H = MAX with 2H (Jx or xx worried about H) 3S = MAX with 2S (Jx or xx worried about S) 3nt = MAX with 5H /2533/ says nothing about the S holding response to 2C (precision 11-16 6C or 5C+4M) 2D INV with 5M+ or without M or Both maj GF 2H INV 4H or weak 5H or 5H and club fit (when u dont want to play 2H in 5-1 or 5-2) may have 4S 2S INV with 4S or with 5S and C support (denies 4H) 2Nt GF without a 6 card suit 3C preempt 0+ not INV 3D GF 6+D 3H GF 6+H 3S GF 6+S 3Nt To play tactical 4C Preempt INV to sacrifice over 4M 4D C Keycard 4H To play 4S To play We are playing that for quite a while and im impressed. Losing transfers and some slam bidding sequence didnt hurt as much as i thought and for stopping low this is perfect. we play 1Nt 10-14 white & 12-15 RED

1) Taking the spades hook at trick 3 is awful. If clubs are 3-3 ur chance of making the contrat is great. you have a Double squeeze if LHO hold the JH or the Diamonds. You of course make it if the D are nice. If clubs are not 3-3 ur chances are slim. you need a 3 guard squeeze Clubs/Heart/spade over East. If you take the S finesse you have to be sure that you going that your going to make it more then 75%. IF the S finesse work. and try the S you have this position. [hv=n=skxxhdtcxx&s=shtdcakqxx]133|200|[/hv] If RHO keep the S and The D there is no squeeze and you have to rely on clubs 3/3 If RHO keep the S and LHO keep the C/H there is no Squeeze (even if D break I might be wrong here) I understand that the S finesse is 50% and club 3/3 35% However so when the S finesse work you have to cash in ur contract at least 75%. so S 3/3 + club 3/3+ squeeze everytime RHO hold H+S and diamonds Finally it seems that S finesse aint so bad after all. This is a very complex hand

Our setup is this 1D waiting 0+ 1H 5H 0+ 1S 5S 0+ 1Nt 6c 0-4 or GF etc 1D opening is natural unbalanced 12-22 1H opening is natural unbalanced 12-14 or 18-22 1S opening is natural unbalanced 12-14 or 18-22 1Nt is 10-14 or 12-15 may have 5M 2C is 11-16 6C or 5C + 4M For handling interference we do much better then those playing regular Strong Club because as long as you show responder shape early ur ok. The strong hand is more often balanced then unbalanced so the big preemption problem is around the responder not the opener.

"After 6D North need to pass IMHO. After the 6S i would be annoyed and probably bid 7 D too." I agree. But bidding a grand that could cost 14+ Imps when im not sure about our agreement is still annoying to me. Was 4Nt natural or 2suited take-out I don't know Was 5S Exclusion ? I don't know. Do 5S suggest the 7 level I don't know What would 5Nt show ? we dont know. It would be interesting to see if partner took ur 5S as exclusion or trying for 7 or just that the 3 strain are possible ? Im pretty sure your partner was annoyed too by your 6S. Anyway i understand your point that over 6S partner had options other then 7D because. You force him to 7 so youre not worried about Aces or Kings or spades. So therefore you are worried about QJ or spots for trumps. So 7H is definetly an option KQJ seems like a great support. But you can have Axxx KQx AKxxxx where 7H goes down if H are 5-1 what about Axxxx KQJ AKxxx where you want to be in 7D but not 7C, 7H or 7Nt . I admit that the more i think about the hand the more i think 7Nt is safer then 7D. But remember your partner didnt have the time i had to think about it. PS if possible i would invite to 7 with your hand not force. There is quite a few hand where partner will have wasted values in S or hands with a H doubleton and 7 will have no play. You did hit partner with a maximum with not too much wastage and only 2S.

How can south not bid 7 when partner made a forcing pass of 6H ? Once south X 4nt its clear you are in FP. After the double of 5D even the kibbitzer know its a psych. These psych dont really work at club level anymore so i would be kind of insulted if some1 try these tricks against me ;) I think north hand is barely strong enough for a FP

6C automatic for me Partner did make a slam try by passing 5S and i did suggest some defending when i passed 4S instead of bidding 5C. So partner is probably afraid of losing 2H that why he cant bid slam. I can + i have no wasted values in S. Partner is clearly expecting a 12-14 balanced So i like my hand. + there is some chance opps will pay the insurance.

I prefer 4Nt followed by 5S then a direct 5S because the hand is more 2 suited then 3 suited. After 6D North need to pass IMHO. After the 6S i would be annoyed and probably bid 7 D too. 4Nt---2 suited T-out 5D--- i dont like clubs i prefer D or H 5S--- im thinking about 7 5Nt --- not sure 6H --- im chicken today pass --- me too grats to those in 7C or 7H

agree. The slow tray can only suggest south to pull. My ruling would be 4S X -1 for 200

I think the number of keyC my partner have is a great indication of the number of tricks we can make. In MP WvsR i think partner will have 2 Keyc as often or close to the times he will have 4 or +. So i pass but in IMPS its a clear 4Nt bid. x KQJxxxx x QJxx. Yes I know they didn't raise, please don't tell me you have never passed with support in order to try and confuse the opponents. Like here, where apparently you could get them to bid blackwood off 4 aces.

I Pass . Partner X mean he doesnt want to play 5H 1 because hes doenst think we can make it. In that case bidding 5H will cost 500+ but will avoid 4SX making or with overtricks. 2 because partner think 4SX is going to pay more then 5H making. In that case probably 4S is going down and its not that clear that 5H is making. Despite 1 being more likely then 2 i thnik pass is best. If id pull against weak players ill bid 4Nt give me chance to play 5h undoubled. WTP of bidding 4H on round 1. R vs R its say it all... i think we wont be down 2 in 4H im trying to make it difficult for them to play 4S. It very possible they make anything so if you double ur on ur own. With extra shape feel free to compet or take a sac. Ive got 5 trumps and shortness. I dont think we can make a slam for me its a perfect 4H bid. playing standard ways .. this is the worst splinter i could imagine. 3 pts outside of trumps (and a K 5th isnt huge def values BTW) slam is such a long shot completly dumb splinter IMHO Just for that 1 i owe my partner at leaset 2 beers :)

I just didnt put the high spot in LHO hand but its almost the same example as the 1 you show. [hv=n=saq32&w=skt9&e=sj8&s=s7654]399|300|[/hv] After the J from (J8) or (JT) or (J9) or (KJ) .Declarer will play have a guess between playing low to the Q or ducking all around. I think the correct solution is to play low to the Q unless RHO rarely falsecard. But i agree for the rest of Stephen post.

Oups my mistake since low to the k win when (Q---A97) its equal. In practice leading the 8 to the K is probably better because RHO might rise with AQ7 (not likely but its possible) I liked Fred very simple explication. For me the interesting part of the problem is that an option by the defense on another holding (A97---Q) or (A7----Q9 with the play of the Q or the 9) is the key to understand why going up with the K is better. But i still think solving it with the restricted choice is still a simple and sound solution. When similar problems will come up it will be simpler for me to understand it in RC term then a "duplication of holding" method. Anyone here who doesnt understand RC should devote some time to it because its quite important and its not that hard to understand. The 'classic' definition of RC is between card of equal values (that are assumed to be played with even frequency) but the RC method also applies when equal arent played with even frequency or when they are not quite equals. ATxxx K98x playing low from hand and LHO play the J. its a (QJ) VS (J---Qxx) case Even if LHO (a beginner who doesnt mixed his play) with (QJ) play the J 80% and the Q 20% its still a restricted choice. Just that finessing for the Q become a small winner instead or a big winner. However the day LHO will drop the Q on first round now the finesse for the J is going to be a big winner. So the fact that with Q9 the 9 and the Q arent played with the same frequency doesnt say its isnt a RC. [hv=n=saqxx&w=sktx&e=sjx&s=sxxxx]399|300|[/hv] you play the A and RHO pitch the J here we have a falsecard that is a RC problem for declarer (between KJ, Jx) (assuming declared is dead anyway if the J is stiff). IMHO its a RC without equals cards but some will say that since the J is worthless then the J and the spot are equal.

Im surprised most dont understand the problem at all. 1 first of all you need 4 tricks. so all case when you are sure to lose 2 trick are pointless. and extra undertricks are also pointless. 2 if RHO played the 7 you have to let run the J because of (9----AQ7) 3 playing LOW (the 8) to the king is inferior because of (9----AQ7) So the whole point of the problem is A7-------Q9 Q7-------A9 THESE ARE THE ONLY CASE WHERE A SMALL CARD (the 9) IS PLAYED THAT MATTERS. i repeat when a 7 is played on 1st round you have to play the J its obvious. Now we have a restricted choice problem because from Q9 its possible to play the Q or the 9. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Principle_of_...choice_(bridge) Why is it possible for defense to play the Q from Q9 ? Because of this case CASE (1) A97 ------- Q. If the Q pops up on round 1 its could be from CASE (1) A97 ------- Q CASE (3) A7 ---------Q9 and RHO decided to play the Q Again we have a restricted choice problem. Since from Q9 the defense could play the 9 or the Q. So when the Q appear on round 1 its more likely the initial position was A97 ----Q and its less likely the initial position was A7----Q9. So declarer best line is to finesse the 9 each time the Q come down on round 1. So With Q9 the defense can play the Q knowing declarer (because of restricted choice) will finesse the 9 and lose. So what the problem of always playing Q from Q9 if it will always succeed ?. The problem is that when you play a 9 its now way more likely to be from A9 then from Q9 (because defense will sometimes or always play Q from Q9). So declarer will go up with the king knowing that RHO holding of A9 is more likely then Q9. So if we put the pertinent cases together we have CASE (1) A97 ------- Q CASE (2) A7 ---------Q9 defense play the 9 CASE (3) A7 ---------Q9 defense play the Q CASE (4) Q7 -------- A9 All other cases are pointless. So declarer strategy is VS a Q on first round putting the K and finessing the 9 on the 2nd round putting the K and playing the T on 2nd round hoping RHO had Q9. VS a 9 Putting the K hoping RHO had A9 Letting the J ride to win if RHO had Q9 So the 4 non-mixed strategies are Finessing the 9 if a stiff Q appear and putting the K VS the 9 it will win in case 1+4 and will always fail in case 2 &3 Finessing the 9 if a stiff Q appear and letting the J ride VS the 9 will win in case 1+2 and will always fail in case 4 To play for D (2-2) by playing the T on 2nd round if a stiff Q appear and putting the K VS the 9 will win in case 3+4 and will always fail in case 1 & 2 To play for D (2-2) by playing the T on 2nd round if a stiff Q appear and letting the J ride VS the 9 will win in case 2+3 and will always fail in case 1 & 4 Because of restricted choice CASE 1 & 4 are more likely then case 2 & 3 therefore Finessing the 9 if a stiff Q appear and putting the K VS the 9 is better The worst play is to not finesse the 9 is the Q drop on round 1 and to let the J ride if the 9 is played on round 1. For the defense since Q7 -----A9 is slightly more probable then A97-----Q the mixed defense should not play the Q from Q9. But against less then excellent declarer putting the Q is probably better.

To better understand this very complicated problems we have to start with the case when the Q drop is possible. When the Q drop its 3 case CASE 1 A97 ------- Q CASE 2 A7 ---------Q9 defense play the 9 CASE 3 A7 ---------Q9 defense play the Q restricted choice says that finessing for the 9 is best because with Q9 defense has a choice of play. Therefore case 1 is more likely then case 3. If defense never play the Q from Q9 then when the Q drop its always a stiff and declarer will always finesse the 9. If defense always play the Q from Q9 then declarer get no edge because CASE 1 is not more likely then case 3 anymore. However here come the downside CASE 4 Q7 ---------A9 If defense always cover with Q9 then when then 9 fall (from A9) declarer will always go up with the K. Therefore a possible defense is a mixed strategy of playing Q from Q9 to protect against case 1 but not too often since the payback is when you have A9. So let see from declarer point of view when the 9 drop now. CASE 2 A7 ---------Q9 defense play the 9 CASE 4 Q7 ---------A9 restricted choice says that hoping with the K best because with Q9 defense has a choice of play. Therefore case 4 is more likely then case 2. The problem is that perfect defender will also would have made the same reasonning and since case 4 is slightly more likely then case 1 (A97 ------- Q). They will never play the Q from Q9. Another way to see it is for declarer to duplicate the holding in wich he is failing to disable deception. A7-------------Q9 by always finessing the 9 if the Q drop and by always playing the K if the 9 appear the deceptive play of the Q from Q9 is disabled. Playing the Q or not make no difference since declarer will failed in both case. So after this duplication the problems become a simple restrictive choice of always finessing for the 9 when the Q drop. here are some strategies to show why going up with the k and always finessing the 9 is best. remember the important cases are A97 -------- Q A7 ---------Q9 Q7-----------A9 lets say we have 3000 hands 1000 each time 3 case case 1 A97 -----------Q case 2 A7 ------ Q9 case 3 Q7 ------A9 strategy number 1 VS defense 1.1 declarer always play the k when the 9 appear and always finesse for the 9 (and perfect computer defense know this) defense will never cover with Q9. A97----Q=+1000 A7 --- Q9=-1000 Q7 ---A9=+1000 so + 1000 strategy number 1 VS defense 1.2 declarer always play the k when the 9 appear and always finesse for the 9 (and perfect computer defense know this) defense will always cover with Q9. A97----Q=+1000 A7 --- Q9=-1000 Q7 ---A9=+1000 so + 1000 strategy number 2 vs defense 2.1 declarer play the K 50% & but always try to pick up the 9xx if the Q drop defense will always go up with the Q with Q9 so we got A97----Q=+1000 A7 --- Q9=-1000 Q7 ---A9= EVEN +500 -500 (since go up 50%) strategy number 2 vs defense 2.2 declarer play the K 50% & but always try to pick up the 9xx if the Q drop defense will never go up with the Q with Q9 so we got A97----Q=+1000 A7 --- Q9= EVEN Q7 ---A9= EVEN +500 -500 (since go up 50%) strategy number 3 VS defense 3.1 declarer play the K 50% and never finesse the 9 (defense know will never cover with Q9). A97----Q= -1000 A7 --- Q9= even since play low 50% Q7 ---A9= EVEN since play low 50% strategy number 3 vs defense 3.2 declarer play the K 50% and never finesse the 9 (defense will always cover with Q9). A97----Q= -1000 A7 --- Q9= +1000 Q7 ---A9= EVEN since play low 50% Strategy number 4 VS defense 4.1 declarer always play low and never finesse the 9 (defense will never cover with Q9) A97----Q= -1000 A7 --- Q9= +1000 Q7 ---A9= -1000 Strategy number 4 VS defense 4.1 declarer always play low and never finesse the 9 (defense will always cover with Q9) A97----Q= -1000 A7 --- Q9= +1000 Q7 ---A9= -1000 Strategy number 5 VS defense 5.1 declarer play high 50% and finesse the 9 50% defense will never cover with Q from Q9) A97----Q= even A7 --- Q9= even Q7 ---A9= even Strategy number 5 VS defense 5.2 declarer play high 50% and finesse the 9 50% defense will always cover with Q from Q9) A97----Q= even A7 --- Q9= even Q7 ---A9= even