benlessard

3S followed by 4D natural keycard (1430). If partner show 1 keycard with 4H ill bid 4S asking for Q of D and pass the 4nt responses. If partner respond 3 key ill play 6D. if hes got 2 he will respond 4Nt and ill pass. Wouldnt suprise me if 3Nt goes down.

3C for me this is clear cut. if partner pass we are in a good spot. 3C is probably making 1 or 2 trick more then 2S. if partner rebid 3D its at least ok. (partner know its MP) If partner bid a game its going to be the best game Im not a "automatic support X" clan. So with AQx my im expecting partner to bid 2S not X. Also over a further 3H partner will be in a better position.

Not sure if i should take this as a compliment on my good bidding or its a compliment on my double dummy play since i can spot the good contract. My post was maybe unclear. But what i wanted to suggest is I agree with all the bidding so far. X is automatic. 4S seems correct with A and 5♠ to the Q (+ vul is RED vs RED) After the 4S bid i don`t consider passing with north reasonnable because north has too much extra values. I think 5H is a good slam try (emphasing a H void because North could have Keyc) & south will refuse so I would have endup in 5S. If north is a bit optimistic and want to blast to slam (behind in the match or whatever else reasons). North would bid 5Nt (PAS) over wich South has a clear 6D bid Im not sure wich part of my bidding you consider double dummy. Also feel free to post other hands where you feel my bidding is double dummy maybe further explanation could help you figure it out. These are of course double dummy conclusion but I think ive played bridge long enough to base my post-mortem and my analysis on judgement not on "resulting". Basically my comment is the same of jdonn. With the small difference that i consider a direct 5Nt as a bit optimist. So i dont think my comments were "resulting" especially since i endup in 5S I have taken the habit of responding most bidding problems without looking at others replies. Sometimes however when i dont intend to reply but read others peoples comments & after i just add my 2 cents.

I agree with the bidding. North cannot pass 4S for sure hes got too much extra. South 4S bid show some minimal values. North can either bid 5H wich south will refuse. Or North can be a bit optimist and bid 5Nt (PAS). 6D is good contract but could go down on a stiff S lead. 6S really need 3-2 trumps.

after small H to K. My plan is D ruff, S to A, D ruff S to Q D ruff. I expect to lose 3 trumps and nothing else. The problem i see with trying to ruff club is that RHO will discard some spades. and sooner or later will ruff a S and play A and small trumps.

disagree 22 trumps 40% 3-1 trumps & H 3-3 50 % x 35% = 17.5 % 3-1 trumps & hearts 4-2 with 4H in the same hands as the 3 trumps= 50%x20% = 10% 40+17.5+10% = 68% borderline grand slam =70% good grand slam = 80% Of course ur right about ruffing a H if trumps are 3-1 and the long trumps has 4H. It was in my calculation but I forgot to post it. These number are approx. so exact calculation is needed. But I think its under 70% and im sure this doesnt qualify as a good grand (Imps scoring ) edited (if youre not sure they will bid slam at the other table if you are 100% sure they bid a slam on the other side then bidding 7 is good)

This seem like a bit short for a grand . You need clubs 2-2 or clubs 3-1 & heart 3-3 or very unlikely squeeze. Wich is quite under 70%

Its IMPs, to even think about passing is 100% nonsense. Ill make 7 much more often then ill go down in 6.

First of all you clearly want to be in 3nt with these hands. I know you are white but still a nice 15 count with a KQJxx facing a 10 pts with 4 clubs support and AKxx. You wont win many Imps matches if you missed those games. If you dont know what responding to 1C in Walsh style is ? Check it out. Maybe its the perfect thing for you. The other thing if you are an advanced partnership is to play 4th suit as always INV. If you want more details send me a personnal message and ill be glad to send some links to you.

I disagree I expect heavy majority will be in slam and a fair amount in 6Nt. So the possible overtrick is important. I assume the lead is from JTX or stiff J. With Jx or JTxx. i think LHO will probably lead a trump. So ill pull some trump. go to dummy with K of clubs discard a club on the A of S ruff a clubs if Clubs are 3-3 im home if LHO has short clubs then ill reach. [hv=n=sqhdkxc&s=shxdxxc]133|200|[/hv]. So if LHO has 4D im ok.

Those who pass and say wtp. Should stay away from IMPs.

Most type of hands that you want to handle are 1-♠ & Nt = spades but Nt could easily be best spot both in slammish and in non-slammish form. 2-♠ & good fit with partner = spades are possible but you also want to raise partner both in slammish and in non-slammish form. 3-Nt & /good fit with partner = where 3Nt or raising partner might be correct. both in slammish and in non-slammish form. 4-Spades & slammish = your going to endup in S but how high ? 5-Spades not slammish = you want to play 4S with 1 & 3 starting by a neg X is best. Partner with a stopper will bid Nt with some length will pass and otherwise you will play in suit. for 2,4,5 If you X and pard respond 4m its not-forcing therefore if partner got a max hand with both m or with super D he will need to jump to game. So gambling hands (5)with good & longs spades shouldnt make a neg X, NEVER (+ the fact that partner can pass your double). With these hands you need to either bid 3S followed by 4S or a direct 4S. So whats the possible use of a direct 4S. 1----S+D fit 2----long spades slammish 3----long spades to play (gambling to 4s) If you decide that a jump to 4S show a slammish hands then with AJTxxxxx and nothing else you need to bid 3S followed by 4S. Partner need to understand that its to play. You also need to turn off forcing passes. Also with super slammish you cant bid 4S. This is annoying. If you decide to play that 4S is S + fit. Then with slammish hands with S you need to bid 3S followed by a cuebid (otherwise 3S followed by 4S is gambling) this is akward. You might have to make a false H cuebid wich is just as bad. So the only thing remaining for a direct 4S is that the gambling type of 4S. So 3S followed by 4S become a bit slammsih. 3S followed by a a new suit is slammish or show fit. So all S+Fit or S & Nt, or long non solid need to start by a X. -------------------------------------------------------- For me a direct 4S is tactical. Meaning im gambling into 4S partner should not try for slam without magic. 3S followed by 4S is showing self sufficient spades with a goodish hand and slam possibility. X followed by 4S is doubt about strain. --------------------------------------------------------------- Some problems if you dont followed this method. You X with a slammish hand with very long S and partner pass. You have a gambling 4S. You bid 3S followed by 4H pass all the way to you you bid 4S opp bid back at 5H. Forcing pass or not ? You bid have a powerhouse with long S. you bid 3S opps bid 4H back to you ? would X show a powerhouse with no H control or shitty S and wanting to collect a +. etc

Disagree agree 100% 4C is probably showing some extras. with xxx xxx Kxx xxxx I think responder should be able to bid 5C. (if they agreement permit it) But with Qxx xxxx xxx Kxxx 4C is the correct bid. However over 4D. If you play that 4Nt show the K of D and 5C the K of C. It means that with Qxxx xxx Kxx xxxx you will need to bid 4Nt ? How about Qxx xxx xxx Kxxx & xx QJTx xxx Kxxx are they both 5C bid bids ? or do you have to blast to 6C with 6 pts ? I think its a much sounder agreement to play that 4Nt is showing a minor control + extras. and that 5C is showing nothing more then the initial 4C bids. Its nice to be able to point out specifics controls but general strenght is important too. Its a quite a wide range 0-1 controls when ur at the 4 level. Most of the time opener will have a hand where 1 controls is enough to think about slam but rarely enough to bid it. A useful side card is often needed.

I know that some play jump as 2nd suit. Just that i didnt know its as popular as auto-splinter at least here in Canada im sure it isnt. in non-comp auction. with a vgood 5431 1S--2S 4C as an auto-splinter is a nice bid. with 5215. 1S--2S--3C followed by a further 4C will show the slam oriented around the 2nd suit. Im not sure that i agree that in competitive auction it make more sense to show a 2nd suit. on a side note ----------------------------------------------- Every 2 years there is a poll about the meaning of 4H in 1S---(2D)-----2S----(4D) 4H and a fair amount of expert says 4H it should be natural strong 5-5 non-forcing with the argument that its possible 4H will play better then 4S. For me to play 4H as NF is something i just find dumb. ---------------------------------------------- Anyway to bid 4H wich setup a FP is a dangerous thing no ? if the opps will bid up to 6 and partner will X i wont like to be in your shoes. Why not just a simple 5S (unless its slam try) maybe a 4Nt and when LHO will X partner should wake up. What i ilke to do also in these situation is to pass. If the opps reach 6 convincingly ill take the sac. if they stop at 5 ill take the save. If they reached 6 the hard way ill pass.

Lets just say that 3S isnt the bid of the year ! After the X 3S has to be natural. 1- worst bid = 3S 2nd place = pulling the X if your 2H show (6-9) or at least 6 pts. Then i give a 3rd place to 2H. If 2H show 4 to something then 2 H is the systemic bid.

Wouldnt 4H be a splinter ? For me it is.

just out of curiosity 7D X was down how many ?

IMPs both vul, opps bid 1♠-1N-2♣-2N-3N pard leads ♥Q dummy is KQ7xx 106x 4 AKQx you have xx Axx KJ65 9xxx declarer has around 9-10 pts. so partner got 8 or 9pts -3 in H. So partner either have the DA or the SA. Could partner have QJ♥+Q♦+ an A ? this seems unlikely. Declarer would have at best. JT Kxx Axx Jxxxxx this doesnt look like a 2Nt to me. So its fairly certain declarer got the QD. So if partner got the SA. and declarer AQ of D. partner need 5H, wich =declarer only 2H so declarer is (1255,2254,2245) i think a fair amount of these hand he will raise to 3C instead of bidding 2Nt. (PS AJXX of S for partner is probably not enough because declarer will still have 2S+1H+2D+4C (unless hes got a stiff spades) If partner got the AD he need both the T and the 8 or 5 of them. A specific 4 card holding like aT8x isnt great odds but i still think this is as or more likely then declarer having Kx in H. So i win with the A and switch small D. I hope partner got 5D to ATxxx

Glad we are on the same wavelength because for me too it (3Nt) doesnt make no sense at all ! B) I see nothing wrong bidding 2Nt (forcing or not) showing 17-19 balanced in my book & if partner decide to pass with 5 pts or (2Q+2J and a stiff spades) i dont mind playing 2Nt. But my preference is to 3D. Jumpshifting into AKQ is rarely wrong giving partner the chance to rebid 3H to show a 5H suit. Ask any player worth his salt and you wont find many of them bidding 3Nt.

Most of the time you prefer to have at least 6 trumps (both hands combined) for wanting to defend a 2X contract. With 5 trumps bidding game or a part-score is often best So what do you think is more likely ? case 1 you have a 5-6 cards suit with goodies and X 1Nt (pure penalty) and by magic the opponent fall back in my long suit and I X again (pure penalty) and the opps decide to pass despite knowing I have 5 or 6 trumps. case 2 I have a balanced hand with 1 or 2 4cards suit and X 1Nt for penalty. The opps run into 1 of my 4 card suit I X again (penalty oriented optionnal) and partner with 2 little and a fair defensive hand decide to pass and the overcaller having no real choice and a balanced hand pass. case 1-- after your X both opps can run case 2---after your X LHO doesnt know if its right to run because its possible your partner has no intention of passing. Also trumps break of 42,3-3 are more likely then 5-1 or 6-0

These hands are np imho case 1 2Nt GF (this implies not fit is known) ----3C show 5-5 or stuck for a bid. 3H (have hearts stoppers or adv cuebids) 3Nt (i dont have doubleton spades or i prefer 3nt) 4C this is slam tries but denies 4 clubs and show cue in H and denies cue in D etc 1♦-1♠-2♣ case2 2Nt GF------3nt (i have h stopper i dont have 3S) case 3 2Nt GF------3C (5-5 or stuck) 3H----------3S (doubleton S desire to play 4S instead of 3Nt) 4S case 4 2Nt GF-----3D 3H----------3S (doubleton S desire to play 4S instead of 3Nt) 4S Ive played this method for quite a while. The problems hands are when the 4th forcing are at 2C & 2D and you can setup GF and make a 2level bid in a M. 1D----1H-----1S------2C (forcing) 2D-----2H(GF) 1D-----1H-----1S------3H(GF) here we lose a full level. 1C-----1H-----1S-------2D(GF) 2H(3h support) 1C-----1H------1S-------2Nt (GF) 3H(3h support) lose a full level. But its far more likely that responder is having a fit in openers suits (2 of them) then opener have a delayed fit in responder suit. On overall we are better place for slam bidding. However the real benefit of these methods are being able to invite and stop lower. 1D----1H------1S------ (to invite in a suit is 3D,3H,3S) but ill be able to invite and stop in 2D,2H,2S. The downside of pass or correct responses is that after a multiINV responses by the opener wich is either showing a dead minimum or a very descriptive bid wich allow some double dummy defense. edited.. there is also the misfit correction 1D------1S---------2C------2D(INV+) 2H------2S(inv)----??? here a 3C bid just show complete misfit. But 1D------1S---------2C------2H(INV) here with a void in S you have to respond 2S. (otherwise partner wil lthink you are super-accepting S)

1) Pass my stiff k of heart suggest defense. Partner could have a doubleton clubs. This doesnt look at all like a double swing game and if it is partner might bid again. I stay away from Granville RED against W. If i bid my bid will be 4S not 5D. As 4th hand my 2D denies a S fit. 2) 3♠ 3) 1♠ 4) Pass i dont see alternatives for the others 3 problems.

Im challenging everybody who read this post to find a hand where my method will give inferior result compare to 4suit GF. I prefer a modern approach wich is quite simple. Just reversing the INV hands and the GF hands 4th suit like our new minor is the only inv and is always inv. 2 level is to play (2Nt and higher is GF) So what used to be INV is now GF and the 4Th suit is now INV. 1D----1H----2C----???? 2D,2H is to play (non-invitationnal) 2S is INV (replace, all nat INV 2Nt,3C,3D,3H) 2Nt & higher is GF The big difference is that on GF hand we know the fit instantly. And we are better placed to find stoppers half a stopper to rightside the contract. if you play 1D----1H----2C-----2S as GF and partner bid 3D. You are badly placed to show a club fit. Worse 1D----1H----2C-----2S (GF) 3H----??? How do you handle a slammish hand with a m fit ? There no downside to my method just a more complicated pass or correct responses. 1D-----1H-----2C------2S(inv) ??? 2Nt I would refuse a bal inv.* 3C I would accept a bal inv but refuse a club INV 3D i would accept a bal inv or a Club inv but refuse a D INV 3H GF with H fit 3S GF with half a stopper 3Nt GF with S stopper. We dont really lose precision because after a 4th suit inv there is no slam possibility. However we sometimes wrongside with a INV hand facing a maximum. A positive thing is that it allowed us to sometime stop in 2M 1D-----1S-----2C-----??? here with a long S INV you have to bid 3S. With my method just bid 2H. if partner rebid 2S (wich mean he refuse a 2S inv) you pass and play 2S instead of 3S. 1D-----1S-----2C-----??? what do you do with S&H INV in my method you just bid 2H. partner will respond 2S and i comeback at 3H showing 5-5 INV. Our only bad result so far have come from not playing the hand from the same side when 1 side bid 2Nt. Im challenging everybody who read this post to find a hand where my method will give inferior result compare to 4suit GF.

Why bid 5D ? 2 strategies i suggest you. 1 You bid 6 directly wich clearly suggest taking a further sac. Partner will X with 1 and pass with 0 or 2. If the X come back to you you pass with 1 and take the sac with 0. If partner pass then you pass with 2 and X with 0 or 1. After your double partner will pass with 2 and sac with 0. By bidding 6D you suggest to your partner that his AD is not cashing. This should get you fairly good result. 2 You pass. If the slam bidding of your opponenent is convincing you take the sac. This is a paradox. Your 7D is purely bid based on the expectation that the opps make their slam. So why not let them more room for their slam bidding, the more accurate they get the better its for you. 3 If you dont play the 1st method. you still can bid 6D directly in the hope they make a mistake. (bidding 6 when 6 isnt there or not bidding 6 when 6 is there). Taking the sac after the direct 6D is inconsequent with the previous action since youre not getting profit for their possible mistake. IMHO bidding 5D is lame.

Its take more strenght & more courage to overcall at the 3 level when the opps X will be penalty. Then to overcall at the 2 level where you will rarely be doubled. Of course you should be inclined to be agressive when opps have a fit, but there is just no comparaison between the 2. you have to remember that in sequence 1 you either have to hope partner can raise you back to 4D or that opps will go down in 3S or that they will let you play 3D and you will make it. Pushing them in a 3S that they will make give you no profit. In seq2 however the opps are less likely to compete at 3S so buying the contract at 3D is a better possibility also you bury their clubs fit.