benlessard

AKJxx A AKJxx Qx This is a very specific hand that is about 25 times less likely then AKxxx---x---AKQxx---Ax Also note that 5S is a 50% contract. AKJ10x A AKxxx Qx Close but not quite a true GF for me.

VUL NS --- west deal (1H)---2H*---(4H)---Pass (pass)--X-----(p)------4S (p)----p-----(X)----all pass 2H was michael but the NS pair had an agreement that 1Nt showed 15-18 one or 2 suited. So the 2H is less then 14 pts of a stronger hand then 18 pts. The X by north was very slow (everybody agreed on this) and explained as showing about 20 pts of strenght. South bid 4S on 654 xxx Qxxx 98x 4Sx making and 4Hx is also making. Does the slow double suggest south to bid 4S ? Do you find south 4S reasonnable ? Does the fact that East X 4S change anything ?

My hand was AKxxx x AKQxx Ax Pretty sure nobody bid slam & some were in 1S making 6. My feeling is at least 80% of the players opened 1S. 1S----3S (weak) 4S or 1S----3S(weak) 4Y----4S was by far the most common auction Its 80% more likely i have AK of S then the stiff Ace of H.+ i have a hard time finding a hand with the A of H without the Q of D that is GF Axxxx A AKxxx AQ being at the 5 level isnt fun but not terrible. IMO the risk in 5S are so low compared to the risk of missing a good slam. Kxxxx A AKQxx Ax PS south doesnt have the K of clubs but north may have it. West might still lead heart. The only system ive seen so far that might bid it convingcinly is TSOR 1C---1D (0-7) 1H----1S (2nd neg) 2C (GF)-----2D (bal) 2H ?---2Nt (44 same rank) 3C?----3Nt (doubleton club so 4432) etc This is because the 2nd neg is very valuable in that case and balanced hands are showned before unbalanced hand

We play spiral scan wich is the same as denials cue. Its symmetrical. Asking the card you need= exactly the same as showing the card you have. Its tougher to show a balanced hand + there is more spot for card in a balanced hand. Unbalanced hand should always do the showing & strenght is irrelevant most of the time. On this case since north has only 1 card its going to be easier but give north 2 or 3 cards and checking for the specifics card will take the same space if not more. My guess for the numbers of players in the world that manage to bid those slam in an intelligent way is close to 0.

Agree with Justin bidding 4S is clearly showing competitive intent for me. Fast arrival is when you are forced not when oponent are forced or are forcing themselve. 1S----(P)----3C (limit)----X ??? here you are forced since 3C X isnt your favorite contract. A pass by you is forcing 1S----(2Nt)----X------(P) ??? Here bidding sugest competing because 2Nt X is an unplayable contract for them not for you. A pass by you isnt forcing. 1S----(X)-----2Nt ----(P) You are forced so 3S is the weakest call and doesnt suggest further competition. 1S----(X)-----2Nt(limit+)----(X) responsive showing both m (or long m+4H) doesnt guarantee many points you are not forced (its them who are forced) 3S show competitive intent.

The laws arent that complicated and this is a fairly simple example. If the 5C club bid would have been bid in tempo, is passing 5C a logical alternative ? The hesitation of the 5C suggest others alternatives, does those alternative are suggesting to go higher then 5C ?

I think the "classic" response structure after a 2C precision is obsolete. If you work on a nice structure after 2C you will prefer having a 2C precision then having a nebulous 1D or a catch-all 1C. Playing a weak 2 in clubs is something that didnt even crossed my mind. (and i much prefer the weak 2D then mini-roman). In mp however the precision 2C opening is a bit painful i agree.

Qxxx Jxxx Txx xx Partner Showned 5152 GF (= 2C opener in standard) 4 keycard + K of D but no K of clubs. You are in 4S do you feel the 5 level is safe enough to make a move ? 4Nt ask for the Q of D a later 5H will ask for a club control.

Agree 100%.

ROTF

Great argument.

Ok i see, just that everybody who posted thought the X was take-out. So its a "guess what the agreement is ?" problem that wasnt mentionned in the first place. I mean its not so tough to put "we had no agreement concerning the X". Still in imps ill make the safety bid of 4S. im willing to go -800 vs a game just to avoid a stupid double game swing. But passing is reasonnable. In doubt of the meaning of the X south should have bid 3H.

I keep reading post where people talk about artificial bid being corrected to other artificial bids do they think partner isnt barred from the auction if so where did they get this idea ??? If 2C or 3C is stayman you are screwed partner is automatically barred. Think about 1H---(1S)----1Nt vs 1H---(2S)----2Nt 1H----(2S)---1Nt Vs 1H----1S-----2D 1H----2S-----3D 1H----2S-----2D In the 2nd case all hand that you are bidding 3D are hands that you can bid 2D with. So 3D is a more precise or at least included in the 2D bid. So partner isnt barred. In the first case if 2Nt is lebensohl or 1Nt or 2nt is whatever artificial bid partner is barred. But in the first since then 2nt bids inst included in the 1nt bid partner is also barred. aqX aj XXXX XXXX 1h---(1s)---- here everybody would bid 2Nt and this hand doesnt fall into the 1nt category. So when it goes 1H---(2S)----1Nt corrected to 2Nt then we know that responder is not 11 pts & not 6-7.

???? this make no sense for me. Bidding 4H encourage opps to bid 4S, is that what you call a steal ? (1H)---P----(3D!)----X (3H)---??? My bid is 4S and not 3S but im not 100% convinced about it. But once west bid 4H then 4S is 100% clear cut. Its easier for north to bid 4S 1- because its more likely south has a stiff H 2- because its might turn out to be a save. Not bidding 4S over 4H at imps when both game have chance to make is beyond salvation. This is LOTT 101 with 19 trumps (wich im not a big adept by the way). A--(3H)------X B--(3H)------P------(p)-------X C--(1H)---P----(3H!)----X... (here lets assume both 3D & 3H have the same meaning) D--(1H)---P----(3D!)----X Its obvious that B is safer then A and that D is much safer then C. But does that mean D could be much weaker then C. Not really because in both case you are showing enough strength to suggest that you can make a partscore on your side. The difference is in the ODR ratio doubling 3D can be bid with less defensive strenght but more shapes like a 4054 wich normally are too dangerous to X 3H with. Some will play that X 3D is lead directing and that 3H is take-out of H but im not sure its worthwhile in imps. edited if (1H)---P----(3D!)----X (3H)---P----(P)------??? do you feel you are strong enough to X again ? yes but its marginal.

Disagree. Having 3S and 2H is a big drawback for Xing again. For me south has a clear pass & its not close. Why north didnt bid 4S is something i just dont understand. The X of 3D is at least suggesting that 3S or 4m can make (remember NS are red so south wont put his head out just for the fun of it). QJxxx xx Qtxxx x ... what more do you want ? I mean usually you will have complete garbage in this situation.. You have points + a 5-5 and there is good chance partner has a stiff H. 100% blame to north. 0% blame to south. Not close at all.

Im french speaking so it seems like a lot of jumbo-mumbo for me 2. But from what i have read. It the same rule as before excepting a very minor point. The very small difference is here. (:unsure: if, except as in (a), the insufficient bid is corrected with a legal call that in the Director’s opinion has the same meaning* as, or a more precise meaning* than, the insufficient bid (such meaning being fully contained within the possible meanings of the insufficient bid) the auction proceeds without further rectification, but see D following. So if a corrected call has a wider meaning different meaning then partner is also barred from auction. 1S----(2H)----2D (insufficient bid refused) replaced by 3D the meaning of 3D is fully included in 2D so bidding procced as usual. 1H----(2S)------2H (insufficient bid refused) corrected to 4H. Here the meaning of the 4H bid insnt fully contained within the possible meanings of the 2h bid. For the rest its the same... 1-- you correcting an artificial bid = barring partner. 2- you correcting to an artificial bid = barring partner. So all those case with transfer or stayman or jacoby 2nt are irrelevant. 23D is the same then 27b1. The premature correction is the same.

Like it or not cellphones have become an important part of our lives. For some of them its needed for business, security etc. I think the amount of people that need will need their cellphones for important reasons is much higher then the amount of people that will cheat using a cell. I think that most personnal reasons for answering a phone call in the middle of a tournament are probably more important then being cheated or not in a bridge event. One thing im sure is that the directors here wont give a damn if you carry your cell and long as they dont ear it. PS i dont own a cell and dont want to.

They will return S after the diamond duck. So many squeeze position wont work. + you will go down if the S finesse lose. Ill try to calculate the odds later this week.

I prefer to play 1nt with them making a lead directing X or an overcall then to play 2nt with no lead directing or no overcall. In many strong club system you will be able to play 2D on this hand or at least 3m. For slam strong club is getting an outrageous edge over a natural 2nt. Try getting to an 5m contract or a 4M (4/3 fit) after a 2nt opening. Playing natural VS a strong club system the less 18+ balanced hands you get the better.

To play. In mp its choice of slam.

In standard 3C is forcing and the reverse at 2D too (if you open 1C). Some older style didnt allow to rebid 1nt without a stopper so for some of them the 2D reverse wasnt forcing, but for me this style made little sense. Even If you open 1C with 2344, 3244, 2245 i prefer to rebid 1nt without a stop then to rebid 2D as nf. Ps 4C is obviously a splinter. Ill bid 3C on the hand. There is case for playing the jumpshift as invitationnal because a cue is available for all the GF, however cueing with a wide range of GF hands is annoying. 1D--- (1S)------X------(p) 2S-----(3S)-----??? here partner is under pressure and with a stopper and a huge clubs fit will bid 3Nt. and you might easily miss a slam.

X of 1D is penalty. When both cue available (2C & 2D) i play that the higher clue is 7-10 pts with support for both M (so i would bid 2D on this hand). Otherwise i would bid 1S. The D void is great but we have only 4 trumps so we are missing a little something for 2S. agree 100%

Im pretty sure you need to play S twice from dummy so you have to do a partial pulling of the trumps. If we compare A= 2 round of trumps (keeping the J), 3 round of clubs if the J♣ doesnt fall low S to the T. B= 3 round of trumps 3 round of clubs (if the J doesnt fall) & low S to the T. A & B are equivalent when the J♣ is stiff or doubleton or tripleton. Only when the J♣ is 4th or 5th we have a difference. A will fail compared to B when the clubs are 5-2 (short club with 3 trumps & the J doesnt fall) & when the S are Kxx ---Jxx with the J of S in RHO. A will win compared to B when clubs are 4-3 (and the J doesnt fall) and the S are xx--KJxx or x---KJxxx (and trumps 3-2) or when Jxx--Kxx. Its easy to see A is a better line then B

3Nt wtp for me. X will wrong side contract if partner bid 3 or 4S. 3S is asking for partner to raise with xx of spades. Partner would have X with 3136 and bad clubs. On this bidding either partner have 2S or 2D or hes got good clubs. They might not be solid but still i prefer 3nt then 3S. If lho leads H with no hesitation then im going down because hes got the A of clubs but other then that my chances are pretty good.

agree 100% with mikeh