benlessard

1-Because for me a vulnerable preempt tend to show 7 tricks. The only hands where im willing to risk -800,-1100 are hands where my suit is pure (they are less likely to double) and hands with clubs (because 2C isnt available) . So KQT9876 and nothing else doesnt qualify for a red 3D. 2nd we dont open light. xx,x,KQJTxxx,Axx is a clearcut 3D for us. 3rd i agree that these are the kind of hands where that if the D dont run you are in bad shapes. But partner rate to have 7D and a entry more often that 8 diamonds and no entry. Remove the J of D and it a whole different story. PS in a precision scheme we play that 2Nt show a bad preempt and 3m show a good preempt. When we are red 2Nt show an entryless preempt and 3m show almost an opening hands, Meckwell used to play something similar but they switch to 2Nt 20-21. I prefer this then 2Nt showing both m 5-11

After a 3D preempt north as an clear cut and obvious 3Nt.

Impossible for me to avoid 3Nt.

Im more a believer into keycards and spiral scan then into controls. So whenever a raise is natural and GF forcing its keycards (unless 3Nt is still in the picture). 1S----2H gf 3H (keycard). Any minor raise at 4D,4C are keycards unless they are competitive raise. Its a bit akward method that take some judgement to master. The key is that when you are scanning for cards information travel both ways so that even if the wrong hand seems to be relaying its mostly an illusion and the hand that know the more will be placed to take a decision.

The full bidding was. Dealer is R you are W. (1D)-----P------(1S)--------4H (5C)-----p------(5D)--------P (P)------5H------(6D) all pass making. I wanst playing but my partner asked me if i would have bid 5H. I said i would probably bid 5H too but directly. He tought 5H was a terrible bid. After extra thinking my feeling is that its probably a borderline or inferior 5H. The opponent will bid 6D a fair amount of times IMO and 5Hx is unlikely to bring significant profits. So unless you use the Garozzo-Belladonna X method for saves against 6D.Bidding 5H seems inferior to pass.

Yep but some KTxx or Kxxx will give you a bad result at 3H X -2 or 3. Plus the good result you get by hitting gold when partner got KTxx,kxxx might not compensate fully the bad result when you play 2Hx. Overcalling will often propelled you to an unmakable 3Nt or 4H even if your style is to overcall agressively. I think 2H is inferior to pass and to X but i have no big problem with it. But if you think its an easy and clearcut 2H bid i suggest you to play more MP than imps teams.

A6xx vs QT98 hes aways got at least 1 loser no matter if we cover or not. So in this particular example you have to assume hes got at least QJ. But the point is good if we dont know how many loser the declarer can afford.

If partner respond light I would just bid 3C or 2Nt. If partner respond sound i would just bid 2D to GF. I prefer to open 1C than 2Nt. For me a 3Nt rebid should really suggest a running club suit stopper in the other suit and partner should have a h stopper to pass.

Yep i rarely pass when partner make a take-out X and i have a 6 card support. Doubling 2Nt should suggest values to X 3H or to bid 3Nt. So a direct 3C,3D,3S suggest shapes and a direct 3H should suggest S and value for a 3S or 4S contract.

Bidding 3C here is horrible. Most 6 card suit arent enough and this 1 is kj7xxx yurk.

2H WTP. This hand is not awesome

2H red is too dangerous for me. I would X but passing is ok too.

NF here. My rules for these questions is a bit simple. A natural game bid isnt forcing if 1- its the cheapest call in that domination. 2- No fit is agreed in a equal denomination. 3- its not a 3Nt serious or non-serious. 1S----(pass)------2S-------(4D) 4H many here will play 4H as natural but for me its forcing.

you are right Hxx -----Hx is more frequent than. H--------Hxxx Hxxx----H xxx------HH. My point was that playing the A is better then leading the J from JTxx so when he lead the J you have to assume hes got the Q and we he lead the Q you have to assume hes got the J. So wich honor he lead doesnt matter. If QJxx is as likely then QJ9x (sometimes when you see the rest of the hand you can assume that QJxx isnt strong enough for the bidding) then north that didnt covering the honnor are making a mistake.

At imps i agree that the difference between 1Nt and 2H is marginal since if you stop low both partscore should make and if you continue there is sufficient method to reach the best game. But in MP im convinced that those who seldom make 3 card raise on balanced hand are losing MP by the tons. This hand aint perfect for a 3card raise but its pretty close to a perfect 3c raise on a balanced hand. I closely watch my score record on those 2M or 1Nt bids since they come up all the time and so far im a big winner. Maybe its because in a weak or medium field they defend moysian worse then they defend 1Nt. Another side benefit of raising more oftne then the field is that responder will often pass 1Nt instead of rebidding 2M. 1D------1S-------1NT--------??? here is partner is frequently raising to 2S instead of rebidding (1Nt with 3S and ruffing power) then if you have a 5S card suit M the % bid is often to pass 1Nt instead of rebidding 2S. Those who think that rebidding 1Nt without a spades stopper is the same thing then opening 1Nt without a spade stopper are clueless.

With ,KJ6,AJ87,3,KQJ62 i would reverse after a 1nt that show 8-10. In teams i think that passing 1Nt is poor. We have a far shot at making 3Nt or 5C and maybe even 4H (if partner bypassed a H suit) and if partner is minimum we are safe at 3C. A 2C bid would be improve the contract and a signoff and i dont like 3C because partner will downgrade too much his majors queens. You really need a way to signoff in 3C. So IMO 3C should be Soff and 2Nt either GF (imps) or nat (MP). If the bidding goes 1C----1S------2D----- ??? Here you need to soff in 4 denomination so 2H as and art slow down work better.

Lets just switch the Aof D for the A of H do you bid 2H or not ? ♠KJ6 ♥AJ87 ♦3 ♣KQJ62

This is more applied ethics than legislation IMO. The comittee should make a decision based on facts and judgement without relying too much on already written laws. 1- Are we making a decision VS the Team (players) or the country (Lebanon) ? I think that what matters is the players and not the country. So im not willing to punish the players if they are not responsible for the boycott. But at the same time i would like to send a signal to the country (but i know its unlikely to give any results) 2- Is the no-show deliberate ? What is the responsability of the players ? 2a maybe they knew they where going to lose badly and hope that the penalty was less painful then the beating. 2b maybe the call from high above was real and they had no option. 2c maybe a little bit of both. 2D maybe the players just didnt want to play vs Israel. I dont know enough about life and politics in Lebanon to answer this question. But one thing is sure I would not take any risk of retaliation of any kind just to play bridge in a tournament i have no hope of winning. 3- If the players had no choice what is a fair score to give them ? what is a fair score to give to their opponent ? Here im sure that giving a fixed score is atrocious. The score given should clearly be based on the overall perfomance of both teams and this can only be done at the end of the tournament. 4- Will my decision have an impact for correcting the problem sooner or later. Here i think that having too much mercy will encourage the player to keep forfeiting while being too harsh will have no effect if the country politics is responsible for the no-show. But giving a fair penalty 'after the results are compiled' should be a deterrent strong enough if the fault lies in the players.

WTP 2H. From a constructive POV 2H in 4-3 fit rate to be as good as 1Nt. From a competitive POV some say that raising will encourage the opponent to compete but on this hand LHO can have a 4??4 and 10+. If you bid 1Nt he will be happy to X and they will probably reach 2S. If you rebid 2H he will be less tempted to X even if you have a fit because he cannot play in 2C anymore. Sometimes you will play 3H instead of defending 2S because partner going to think you have 4H but it might not be a bad thing.

Dummy is Axxx and you dont know if declarer has QJ9x or QJxx.

These are complex problems. There is 3 relevant holdings.Depending if declarer play the suit for 0 or 1 loser. QJxx QJ9x JTxx. With JTxx declarer can play the J to induce a cover from Kx or can play A hoping to pick a stiff honor in LHO or pick up KQ. Playing the A is better. So JTxx is out (and if declarer cannot afford a loser than this case is eliminated right from the start) So what remain is QJxx & QJ9x and both have the same probability. QJ97,QJ95,QJ93 QJ75,QJ73,QJ53 There is some psychology here since with QJ9x some declarer will be tempted to lead the Q while with QJxx he might try the jack. But this doesnt hold in a strong level since all four player should assume declarer has QJ. So now the question is declarer lead an honor (Q or J doesnt matter). Should LHO cover with Kx. Obviously with KT & K9 he will always cover. But with K7,K5,K3 ? If declarer always cover with KT and never cover with Kx declarer will always play to drop the KT. But at the same time declarer will have QJxx as often then QJ9x. And with QJxx he will run for an honnor 100% of the times. So LHO should always cover since QJxx is as likely then QJ9x. And if LHO always cover then declarer should always finesse the ten. This is assuming the 4-4 fit is known.

WTP pass. Bidding 3Nt is crazy. You made a 2 level vulnerable overcall and partner wasnt able to bid 3Nt. What extras do you have ? I hope they are in 3nt at the other table. As for 3C well it might work but at the same time with my balanced hand i have a hard time thinking ill make 2 more trick in clubs then in Nt.

In MP i would think its GF because D is unlikely to be the best MP spot. With no discussion i would always assume that its strong and GF. In an regular partnership i can live with a 2D improve the contract with a (34)51 hand.

Partner has a 7-5 or maybe a 65 with lousy diamonds. 1- he got a hand with enough distribution to make a 4 level bid. 2- He doesnt have the same lenght of H & D and if he is 6-5 than there is a discrepency between the quality of the suits. (the 5 card is weak & the 6 card is good) So he can be 75 or 57. With 57 i prefer to bid D followed by an artificial Nt bid.

I like to play that 1C---1Nt = 8-10 1C---1Nt----2oS could be lighter then a reverse and isnt GF. and after reverse(& even jump shift) i play that the cheapest bid available is a slow down or a im stuck bid. So that all other bids are Gf and show faily precise things. So for me 3C is forcing and show Hxx or xxxx. So after 3S, if i have an economic keycard at 4C or 4D that is my bid otherwise im making a 4C cue.