kgr

opps at other table bid and made 4♠...Yes, I'd wanted to be in 4♠ as well. :)

I passed twice. Partner had 8 HCP. At other table opps bid to 3NT which made.

[hv=d=n&n=saqxxxhkq9dxcaxxx&s=sxhajtxxxdaqjxxcx]133|200|Scoring: IMP 1S-2H 3C-3D 4H-All Pass[/hv] - 3C was GF (with a weaker hand North has to bid 2S. 3H would have shown 4 card H and GF) - 3D was 4th suit GF..but yes it was already GF. => North did show 5=3=1=4 and 15 HCP South did show 10+ HCP and a 5-card H. ...North was minimum for his bids before he bid 4H, but does his hand with Aces and ♥K is so good that he better bids 3H iso 4H? :) At the other table opps did bid to 7♥ which made after a none ♥ lead (RHO had 4-card ♦'s. After a ♥ lead 7♥ probably fails).

Partner had 3=4=5=1 and 16 HCP. I did bid 2♦ for 2 reasons: - DBL's of RHO indicated bad breaks in majors to me (actually RHO had only 3 card ♠) - I thought 2♠ was more encouraging then 2♦ (..is it?) Partner raised to 3♦ and went -1. I didn't follow the played but was told later that he should make. Thanks for the replys! Koen

[hv=d=s&v=n&n=sxxhqxxxdaqtxxxcx&s=sakqjhktxxdxxcjxx]133|200|Scoring: IMP 1C-1D 3H-4H[/hv] 1D of partner is transfer to H (transfer Walsh). You bid an agressive 3H (showing 15-17 without a singleton) and partner raises to 4. LHO starts with ♣A ans switches to ♦8. Do you play ♦A, ♦Q or ♦T and how do you continue? Thanks, Koen PS: Lots of posts from me today. Mostly I only post hands where we reached a bad score hoping if I can learn anything from it. ...so you can imagine that we lost 4-25 :(

[hv=s=sqjxhqj9djxxckxxx]133|100|1D-(1NT)-DBL-(RDBL) P-(2C)-??[/hv] You DBL of 1NT was penalty. RDBL of LHO was transfer to Clubs. What do you prefer that DBL by you shows now: - Partner I have clubs, pass with 2+ clubs - Partner please pass, this is a pure penalty DBL, this goes down. ...Suppose you DBL. bidding continues: 1D-(1NT)-DBL-(RDBL) P-(2C)-DBL-(P) 2H-(P)-??? (partner clearly has a singleton or void Clubs)

[hv=d=n&v=n&n=saqxxhaxxdkxxxcjx&s=stxxxxhxxdaqjxcxx]133|200|Scoring: IMP 1D-(2H)-DBL-(P) 2S-(P)-P-(3H) P-(P)-3S-All Pas[/hv] West had ♠Kx and 4♠ would have made. Should N or S bid more?

IMPS; E/- (1C)-1D-(DBL)-Pass (2C)-DBL-(RDBL)-?? Ideally your partner has 4=4=5=0, but probably he has 3-4=5=1 (otherwise he would have started with a DBL) and 12-15 HCP. RHO also did promise the majors and not too bad hand. Do you prefer 2D or 2S now? PS: Not sure if I had Jxxxx=xx=xxx=xxx or Jxxxx=xxx=xxx=xx

[hv=d=s&v=n&s=skxhaqxdaxxckqxxx]133|100|Scoring: IMP 1C-(1NT)-P-(2H) ??-(2S)-P-(P) ??[/hv] Do you bid over 2H or over 2S?

[hv=d=n&s=sxhajxxxxdaqjxxcx]133|100|Scoring: IMP 1S-2H 3C-3D 4H[/hv] With his bidding partner showed 5=3=1=4 or 5=3=0=5 and 15 HCP. With his 3C bid he showed GF hand. If he had bid 3H iso 3C then that would have been 4 card H and GF. His 4H shows a minimum hand, with more he can bid 3H. Pass or 4NT (or anything else)?

I did bid 2♦. This post probably best sumarizes why I should not. It's MP's, so not so much the remote possibility of making game is important. 2D just made, but 1NT, 2H would have scored better as well as letting opps play. (partner was 4=4=2=3 with 10 HCP). I scored almost a zero with my bid, but still thought it was the correct bid. ...BBF told me differently :)

...it works against doubleton ♠Q as I cash ♠AK. If East has ♦K then my line works if West has ♠Q because of the double squeeze. If East has ♦K and ♠Q I can only win if he also has the ♥ length. .....From the lead, I'm rather confident that East has the ♦K. !!!Remark: I'm really confident that you are by far the better player and analyst. I've been very interested by your squeeze posts some year(s?) ago. I'm trying to improve my thinking, not trying to proove that I know better then you. ;)

[hv=d=n&v=e&s=sqxhkxxdkqj9xcjxx]133|100|Scoring: MP P-(1♣)-??[/hv] MP's: Your partner dealed and passed and East opened 1♣. Opps play weak NT and 4 card Majors. Do you bid 1D or 2D (2D is weak)? (Do you bid different at IMP's?

Bidding: MP's; W/- (1S)-2D-(3S)-P (4S)-All pass You partner did overcall 2D and you have ♦8532, but you did not have the chance to show support. 3S was limit raise. Qxxx AJxx xx Kxx xxx Qxx 8532 xxx You partner leads ♦A and follows with ♦K. According to your agreements ♣ is obvious switch and you should therfore encourage ♦: - Do you play the ♦8 or 5? You partner continous with ♦K. Which ♦ do you play now and what does it show? Are you able to show 4-card ♦?

Yes, difficult to say which line is better. to defend my line: ;) - I think ♠Qx is more likely then ♠Q or ♥JT8 - Most likely in your line opps will both follow a ♠ and 3 ♥'s. You will play West to have the 4-card for the double squeeze? - What do you discard on the 3th ♥. That will have to be a ♠ and you don't have a ♠ finesse anymore in case West does not follow on 3th ♥?

Thanks all for the answers! On the actual hand RHO had ♠Txxx and LHO had ♣A and the distribution of opps card made it impossible anyway to make the hand. 6♠-1

Would you start with a heart ruff, to shorten your trump in case RHO appears to have Txxx?

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After we cashed 3 ♠ tricks, I returned a ♥. (the idea was to develop a ♥ trick before declarer did set up dummy's ♣.) How bad is that? ...Thinking about this it is probably very bad :(. The only time it can be any useful is when declarer has: JT9x=AJxx=xx=Qxx : not a possible hand for the bidding & heart return is not needed. JT9x=AJxx=A8x=xx : heart return does not help us. I can't find a possible hand where it is needed. .... Declare had: JT9x=AKTx=8x=Qxx : The heart return did help him to find ♥J with partner. ... This is probably my weakest point in defending: deducting what possbile hands declarer can hold & concluding what the best defence is. Any suggestions how to improve that are welcome. Thanks, Koen PS: I'm rereading Kelsey's 4 volumes on squeezes. It is probably almost useless if I can't improve the above point.

Thanks for the answers. Mostly I only post failures (hoping to learn from it). Yhis one was a succes and I wanted to verify if it was well earned: AQ=Qxx=xx=JTxxxx vs Kx=AKx=Axx=AKxxx bidding: 2NT-3♣ 3♥-4♣ 4♥-4♠ 4NT-5♣ 5♦-6♣ 2NT: 20-21 3♣: some kind of puppet stayman 3♥: No 4-card M 4♣: slem interest with 4/4 minors or 5 card ♣ 4♥: agree ♣, 1st/2nd control ♥ (does not deny ♦ control) 4♠: control 4NT: RKC 5♣: 4/1 5♦: Ask ♣Q? 6♣: does not have ♣Q (maybe I should show the Q with a 6-card, luckily I didn't)

[hv=d=s&v=n&n=sxxhaxxxdxxcktxxx&s=sakq9xxhxdakxcq9x]133|200|Scoring: IMP 3D-3H 3S-4C 4D-4NT 5D-5H 6C-6S - 3D followed by 3S=GF in S - 4C: cue (1st or 2nd) / 3NT would be weaker (only 1 control) - 4NT: RKC - 5D: 3/0 - 5H: Queen? - 6C: yes and club K (I don't know why my partner did bid 6C) [/hv] You overbid (?) by showing a GF in S and have to play 6S now. LHO leads ♦Q for your Ace. What is the best play from here? ....hidden clue:

I'm always happy if I would have chosen the same bid as you....so I'm worried about my choice now: Here I would bid 2H followed by 3NT. Don't you think that 3NT is still a possible contract?

- 2NT-4m = slem interest with 6-card in that minor, opener tries to sign off with 4NT - 2NT-3C-3x-4C (with 3x denying a 5-card major) = slem interest with 4/4 in minors or 5-card Club, opener bids 4D if he likes D and not C or tries to sign off with 4NT - 2NT-3C-3x-4D (with 3x denying a 5-card major) = slem interest with 5-card Diamond, opener tries to sign off with 4NT - 2NT-3S = slem interest with 5/4 in minors, opener bid 3NT without a 4-card minor

right No, 3♠ would show 5/4 in the minors and slem interest. 5 card minor or 4/4 minors and slem interest go via 3♣ With 6 card minor and good slem interst we bid 4 in the minor We bid that via 3♣ followed by 4♣, but will end in 4NT iso 3NT if no fit.

Dummy discards were a H and a D. (This is a bad signs that I didn't immediatly remember dummy's discards.)