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Everything posted by Wackojack
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Open 1 Diamond or 1 No Trump
Wackojack posted a topic in Intermediate and Advanced Bridge Discussion
[hv=pc=n&e=sa2hq5dqj632ckj73]133|100|Your are playing Acol 12-14 no trump[/hv] 1. Do you open this 1♦ or 1NT? 2. Generally regardless of strength of 1NT and points in the 1NT range and a 2254 distribution if you were to open 1NT what cards would you require in the 2 major suit doubletons? 3. Reverse diamonds and clubs so a 2245 distribution. Same question. 4. Opposite 1NT opener you have a good hand with 5-5 in the majors. How do you avoid playing in a major when a no trump contract is better? 5. Playing weak no trump it is doubled for penalties. You are weak with a 4432 or 4423 shape. How do you avoid wriggling into a 4-2 major fit? -
[hv=pc=n&s=sq5hakqj542dq3caq&d=e&v=n&b=2&a=1d]133|200[/hv]
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V important: Double, Stayman, RS transfers Learn when double is for pen and when for take out Learn the continuations of Stayman and transfers Learn the applicability of Stayman Learn what to do when opponets intervene after a conventional bid is made. Learn when bids are forcing or non forcing. Particularly important when playing Acol. Worthwhile: RKB, A defence to 1NT; Splinters; J2N, Michaels, cue bidding particularly support cue bids; fourth suit forcing. Learn when to use these conventions and when not to. Learn the continuations. Learn what to do when the opponents use these conventions. Retrograde: Benji 2♣and 2♦. Forget it. Finally Gerber: This convention might be needed on average once in a lifetime if you play once a week. It is 99.99% of the time mis-used. Forget it.
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These were the actual hands. [hv=pc=n&s=sq952hj73dt973c75&w=sakjt7hakd8652ct8&n=shtdakqjcakqj9432&e=s8643hq986542d4c6&d=e&v=b&b=10&a=pp1n6cpp6sdppp]399|300[/hv] At the end of the session, I alongside 2 other club directors were called on by the acting director of the evening to make a ruling on what happened at his table. On the basis of a significant hesitation by East we agreed that the score should revert back to 6♣= and this was the insrtuction given to the scorer. The EW pair were not present at that time and it transpired that they wished to appeal against the decision. First of all I wish to apologise to Lorne for starting this thread. It was done before I knew there was going to be an appeal and my interest was the bidding when there was no hesitation. Too late now. Here are a few more facts and my opinions assuming (hypothetically or not as the case may be) no hesitations. At my table I opened 1♠ (5M 15-17NT) and partner bid 6♠ over 6♣. It wasn't too difficult for me to play North for a spade void and use hearts for a trump coup for -200. My partner's explanation for her bid of 6♠ was that West was normally frightened of her own shadow and therefore had to have 12 tricks in her own hand. This was a complete top and 6♣= was the result at all tables except one where the contract was 6♣ doubled =. I think that all other West's were weak no trumpers so would have opened 1♠. I support the opinion given by a surprising minority of posters in this thread, that most Norths would only bid 6♣ when they had just about 12 tricks in their hand. Thus if after partner opens 1NT it is reasonable to think that East might consider a sacrifice of 6♥. It is also not unreasonable to think that if East passes without any hesitation (after the stop card is removed) then there is a good chance that 6♠ doubled will be cheaper than -1370. So the question here is do you consider that the Chance of 6♣ making x the chance of 6♠ going off no more than 4 is greater or less than 50%?
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Yes indeed! But consider the implications of LHO having this shape. You have 5 spades and LHO has none. How many spades might partner have and so how many tricks might you make in spades?
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[hv=pc=n&w=sakjt7hakd8652ct8&d=e&v=b&b=10&a=pp1n6cpp]133|200[/hv] 1NT shows 15-17 It is a club MP evening and you are new to this club. You are playing at the TD's table. The jump to 6♣ was made by the partner of the TD who you believe to be an experienced player. As west what is your next bid?
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[hv=pc=n&s=sat83haq752daq3cq&n=sq64h8dkt4cat8432&d=e&v=e&b=6&a=p1hp1np2sp]266|200[/hv] I recall recently a thread that discusssed what system should a beginner start on. 2 over 1 was a popular suggestion because of its simplicity. I picked up Zel as a partner yesterday and we agreed 2 over 1 even though I guess we had better knowledge of Acol than 2/1. With my turn to bid after partner's reverse into 2♠ I was not sure of the the normal continuations. I decided that 2N was a natural invite and 3♣ would be weak. I bid 2N, partner bid 3♣. Although it was obvious to me that he took 2N as a Lebensohl type bid, to be consistent with my 2N underbid I passed. OK my bidding was consistent with partner having only about 15HCP, which with my knowledge of 2/1 is far too few to be realistic. Stupid me Checking BBO Adv I see that 2N is used as Ingberman transfer to 3♣ and so a direct 3♣is used as a natural game force. (So apologies to Zel) However, although I can see the advantage of the use of 2N Ingberman in the sequence 1♦-1♠-2♥-2N where 3 suits have been bid naturally and responder needs to sign off in openers minor. The sequence 1♥-1N-2♠is different in that only 2 suits have been bid. Is not the situation here more analagous to a Flannery 2♦opening bid showing 5+♥and 4♠? So 1♥-1N-2♠ = Strong Flannery by opener and nebulous 6-12 by responder. In this case a response of 2N would an artificial asking bid and the the strongest available and bids of a minor suit would be weaker inviting 3NT. Comments on this? And how do teachers of beginners handle this? Incidentally in Acol it is interesting. 1♥-2♣-2♠(GF)-3N (nat no extras) -pass.
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Slamming or not?
Wackojack replied to Wackojack's topic in Intermediate and Advanced Bridge Discussion
On these lines: 1♠ -1NT (up to 10-11 points) 2NT (gf) - 3♦ 3♠ (6 bad spades)- 4♠ or 4♣? -
Slamming or not?
Wackojack replied to Wackojack's topic in Intermediate and Advanced Bridge Discussion
♠-2♥[hv=pc=n&w=sq96432hakda3ckq6&e=sakh9dkt742cj9873&d=s&v=b&b=7&a=p1sp]266|200|This was one hand where this question came up. 1♠-2♥ was a different hand.[/hv] Playing 2 over 1 it looks like this is still tricky to bid. With no Gazilli presumably: 1♠-1NT-? same problem as I had. With Gazilli: 1♠-1NT 2♣- 2♦ ? Now how do you show a good hand with 6 bad spades? SA and variants 1♠- 2♦ 2♠-3♣ 3♥?-3♠? or 4♣? We stumbled into 4♠ after partner raised to 4♣ but to quote mikeh "My view is that having been raised to 4♣, we will no longer be able to bid in such a manner as to reach the right contract other than by pure coincidence" So can you persuade me and my partner to change our methods to a more normal method which would safely get us to the slam 6♣ 6♠ Footnote: Partner's actual club holding was 109873. This makes 6♠ more iffy as a contract and 6♣ still reasonable. So any revised bidding with this actual club holding? -
Slamming or not?
Wackojack replied to Wackojack's topic in Intermediate and Advanced Bridge Discussion
Thanks for your replies which I largely anticipated. Let me give you more material for guffaws when you read this. We play: 1♠-2♥-2♠ = min nf could be 5 cards if unbalanced 1♠-2♥-2NT = Good 11-13 balanced nf 1♠-2♥-3NT = 14 balanced 1♠-2♥-3♥ = In principle non forcing ♠-2♥-3♣ Yes it is game forcing Thus with 18-19 balanced we have to make a 3m bid on 3 cards. Similarly 1♠-2♣ continuations. Except now rebid 2♠will be 6 cards. This is a fairly regular partner I play with and I will be sending him the link for this topic for interest/critiacal evaluation. So any defence at all for this method? -
[hv=pc=n&w=sq96432hakda3ckq6&d=s&v=b&b=7&a=p1sp2hp3cp4c]133|200|We were playing 15-17NT 5542. NOT 2 over 1 and 1M-2♥-2♠ is NOT forcing. Of course, playing 2 over 1 or SAYC I could rebid 2♠, and playing Acol 12-14, I could rebid a forcing 2NT. With these limitations would anyone bid 3♠? Me not wanting to bid 3♠ on such a ropey suit, I invented 3♣. Partner raised to 4♣. Your bid now? Suppose you next cue 4♦ and partner bids 4♠, do you move now? It won't surprise me to get replies telling me to change the system to make 2♠ forcing, but that is a big change. [/hv]
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After partner doubles a 1NT overcall and opponents start running Thanks for the replies. So far I have got this: Aguahombre & whereagles Set the dogs on them if they run. All doubles are for penalties. If you judge you’re your dog is toothless, then pass. Simple and what most would naturally play without prior agreement. Wesley & Helene & Jinsky Opener’s double is for take-out, bid to play, pass = pass the buck. If opener started with balanced 18-19 and has values in the run out suit, he cannot pass if the pass is not forcing so has to double. Partner will take out and you likely have missed a great penalty. Marlowe Opener’s double is for take-out, bid to play, pass = forcing. If opener has values in the run out suit, he can pass (forcing). Responder with good judgement can get a good penalty by doubling if there is one. Responder initially has to assume that the pass is made on a balanced 12-14 with 3 or more in the suit. Wackojack Rules for the penalty double token. The most complex and perhaps easiest to forget. Is this a correct interpretation of your views?
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[hv=pc=n&s=sj53haq63dk4cq742&n=sk972hk98d652ca53&d=s&v=0&b=11&a=1c1nd2dpp]266|200[/hv] Over South’s 1♣ opening, West overcalls 1NT, North makes a normal penalty double and East rescues with 2♦. I take it that a double by South is best reserved for penalties if you are playing 5533 or 5543 and strong no trump. (If you are playing Acol weak no trump presumably a double could include any balanced 15+.) So South above would pass round to North. My question now is what should a double by North mean? My view is that this should not be a penalty double. True, if you were North with something like ♦ QJ109 and a balanced 11 you would want to penalise. Far more common North would have a hand similar to above. North could reason that South’s pass most likely shows a balanced 12-14 with fewer than 4 diamonds, less likely an unbalanced hand with 5 clubs, or a 4414 distribution. It is far better then, for North’s double in this sequence to be for take-out. So with the hand above South would take out into 2♥ and would play in this contract. So what should be the general rules for penalty/take-out after an overcall of 1N is doubled? I can imagine North for his first double holds a token that says on it “Double is for penalties”. When East makes a rescue bid the token must be passed to South. So if South doubles it is for penalties and if West then rescues into a new suit the token is passed back to North who has permission to double again for penalties. OTOH if South passes, she keeps the token and so the token-less North can only double for take-out. Is this the normal expert way or am I totally off beam?
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We all Missed This Grand
Wackojack replied to eagles123's topic in Intermediate and Advanced Bridge Discussion
Grand with Blackwood the only gadget ---------------1♦ 1♠--------- 2NT 3♦---- 3♥ control 3♠ control-- 4♣control 4NT RKB----- 5♠ 2+Q♦ At this stage west knows the east has A♥,♦KQ, ♣K = 12 points. What could be the remaining 6 or 7 points? With the K♠+ K♥ 13 tricks can be counted. So: 5NT (kings?) 7♦ (I have 3) With 2 kings East would bid the lowest ranking major suit King. Admittedly this will put you above 6D so west can bail out into 6NT. -
[hv=d=w&v=0&b=8&a=1c1nd2dd]133|100| Penalties I assume[/hv] [hv=d=w&v=0&b=8&a=1c1nd2dppdp]133|100| Is East;s 2nd double for take-out or penalties? 1. If penalties then on what types of hand can West remove? 2. If take-out then west can leave in for penalties with a suitable hand[/hv] The problem with treating East's 2nd double for penalties as I see it is that East would have to pass when not having a suitable penalty double. Then it is highly likely that EW would miss a major suit contract when NS can make 2♦ The problem treating East's 2nd double for take-out as I see it is that this is the last chance for a penalty but East has to pass having a good hand that would like to double for penalties. Which is best? Which is normal?
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Very true. I didn't inspect the yellow tab and thought it was 15-17 no trump.
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Try a simulation KD4970Y: I got 4♥-1 4% 4♥= 52% 4♥+1 33% 4♥ +2 11% I removed those hands where the stayman bid might be doubled and where there was a guess I tended towards getting it wrong otherwise the % would be even more convincing.
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Bad bidding or bad luck
Wackojack replied to dickiegera's topic in Intermediate and Advanced Bridge Discussion
I thought I would do a quick and slightly unscientific study using Playbridge deal generator. I put in Openers hand as it was and constrained responders hand to exactly 10 points and with the type of distribution that would raise 1NT directly to 3NT. Viz: 2-3♠, 2-3♥, 2-4♦, 2-4♣. Saved as FR8126Q Results from 32 boards: 5-2 ♥ fit on 5 hands, 4 making 3N, 1 down 1 when 4♥ was also down 1. Responder had 4 clubs on 31 hands, 1 club on 1 hand (Q107), and 2 clubs on zero hands. After an admittedly quick eyeballing of the hands this is what I saw: Of the 27 hands with a 5-3 fit: 12 3N and 4♥ made 9 3N and 4♥ down 6 3N made 4♥ down 0 3N down 4♥ made So if partner has a 4333 distribution and 10HCP: 1. Do not worry that partner will not have a club stop. This is will be extremely rare and partners 4 card suit is very likely to be clubs. 2. If you open 1NT on this hand and partner responds 3NT you will make it about 70% of the time. 3. If alternatively you open 1♥ on this hand and get to 4♥ when partner has 3 card support, you will make it only about 45% of the time. Amen to Justins post above -
Double? Overcall 1NT or even Pass?
Wackojack replied to Wackojack's topic in Intermediate and Advanced Bridge Discussion
[hv=pc=n&s=sj8hkj86daj85c982&n=sakqhat3dqt62cj54]133|200[/hv] 1♣-dbl-pass-2♥ pass -? As North you decided you could not bear the thought of being banished if you overcalled 1NT (ggwhiz) so you doubled for take-out and partner responded 2♥ showing precisely? 4 cards and 8-10 points. So do I hear pass from North bottling out? -
Double? Overcall 1NT or even Pass?
Wackojack replied to Wackojack's topic in Intermediate and Advanced Bridge Discussion
Thankyou. You are so far the only poster who has said what they would do for the follow-ups to the double. I am particularly interested in the types of hand that 2♥, 3♥ and 2♣ describes. Unless partner has a good idea of the types of hand these responses describe his next bid will be a shot in the dark. So here is something to knock down or endorse: 1♣-(x)-p-? 2♥ = 9-11 4 cards (or fewer with 5 cards) 3♥ = typically 8 losers invite opposite a min double promising 5 cards 2♣ = 12+ game force or not? -
Double? Overcall 1NT or even Pass?
Wackojack replied to Wackojack's topic in Intermediate and Advanced Bridge Discussion
Err..... does not "beyond clear" in modern jargon mean "more than clear"? This accords with your previous post saying "pretty clear" Then you talk about losing the first 5 tricks. Perhaps I misunderstand and you meant to say that replace our Jxx with Qxx then if partner has nothing we can still lose the first 5 tricks. As said earlier Qx opposite Jxx is frozen. -
Double? Overcall 1NT or even Pass?
Wackojack replied to Wackojack's topic in Intermediate and Advanced Bridge Discussion
My thoughts if I had this hand: Overcall 1NT? With Acol 12-14, RHO is very likely to have an unbalanced hand with 5 or more clubs. However, since I have ♣Jxx, even ♣Qx with partner will be a stop. If partner has a 5 card major he will transfer and we will find our fit. If partner has game values and a 4 card major he will, bid 2♣ and finding no 4 card major will bid 3NT. Say we do have a club stop. Then we need 8 top tricks to cash. This looks like a reasonable chance. Double: If partner has a 4 card major and no good stop in clubs as is likely, then we will be playing in a 4-3 major suit fit. IIf partner has a 5 card major all will be well in regard to the strain, but we need a good understanding of what strength is needed to bid 2♣, 2♥ or 3♥. My conclusion: When partner has a 5 card major it will be much easier to gauge the contract level if partner overcall 1NT. When partner has a 4 card major there is still a good chance of no trumps playing better. To those that do choose double: 2♣, 2♥, 3♥ what will these bids be showing and what action do you take? -
[hv=pc=n&n=sakqhat3dqt62cj54&d=w&v=b&b=4&a=1c]133|200[/hv] My partner held this hand and doubled for take-out. At the time I thought he should have overcalled 1NT but now I am re-considering. Our opponents were playing Acol 12-14 no trump. This means that the 1♣ opening promises at least 4. If a 4 carder the hand will have 15-19 points unless some 4441's. Otherwise it will be a 5+ carder. So the odds favour 5 or more cards in opps club suit. Overcalling 1NT without a stop now has big disadvantages. If partner does have a club stop we will be wrong siding the contract so it is likely that a no trump contract will be poor. Thoughts? Then again after you double what do you do if partner bids 2♥? 3♥? 2♣? Thoughts?
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East 100%. However, had I been sitting West knowing that East was a typical intermediate BBO player, then I would blame myself for not opening 4♠.
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If Only the Jack Was The Queen!
Wackojack replied to eagles123's topic in Intermediate and Advanced Bridge Discussion
A matter of style of course but I think it is winning bridge to open all major suit 11 point 5431 hands with the exception of stiff honour, quacky or weak in long suits. This hand has aces in the long suits and 3514 is particularly good distribution to get you away in a possible competitive race.
