Wackojack

Very neat. Yes I have read that after 4N key card a bid of 6 in a side suit asks for 3rd round control to bid the grand. As you say since a bid of 6♠ is out of the question, then 6♦ can be a substitute bid for 6♠ since the diamond shortage is already known. Great if a partnership has got that depth of inferential understanding. Very neat.

Love all; Over RHO 1♦, you make a pre-emptive weak jump overcall of 3♣. The bidding goes: 1♦-(3♣)-p-(p); 3♦-(p)-p-(x) What kind of hand does your partner have for the double? What action is expected from you? Discussion: 1. On the principle that the double of an overcall of a pre-empt should be for penalties, then could this also be for penalties? Could partner have something like, ♠ AQxx, ♥ AKx ,♦ QJ109, ♣xx and didn’t shoot 3N the first time round? 2. Could it be that partner has a strong hand something like ♠ Kxxx, ♥ AKJx , ♦ Jxx, ♣Ax and with no ♦ stop didn’t see game as likely? And now wanting to compete is asking you to do something intelligent? Then presumably you would bid in priority order: (i) Unlikely but should you have a 4 card major then bid it. (ii) Unlikely but should you have ♦Kx or ♦Qxx then bid 3NT. (iii) Should you have a 3 card major feature Qxx or better then bid it. (iv) With none of these then bid 4♣. Views? If partner did have hand 2 and you bid 3♥ or 3♠ after the double what should he bid next?

My thread contained 2 questions: 1. Double or overcall the hand in question. Well answered thanks for that. 2. Is this a good idea? Forget the actual hands what do the sequences mean? 1♠-x-p-2♥ 2♠-3♥ competitive with 4 hearts 1♠-x-p-2♥ 2♠-x-p-3m p - 3♥ invite with 4 hearts Wank was the only one to give an opinion and he thought it was bollocks

Pass hand 1 and come in with a double after p-1z-p-1s. Open hand 2 1NT

The 4 hands were: [hv=pc=n&s=sakq85hjdj9873cat&w=s94haq62da6ckq962&n=s732ht754dq42c743&e=sjt6hk983dkt5cj85&d=e&v=b&b=10&a=p1sdp2h2s3hppp]399|300[/hv] 1. I don't think Tim and Lorne the other pair in the team smoke. 2. To be fair Lorne was commenting on my initial comments to my partner which were: "This time 4♥ is a very good contract. After South rebids 2♠, my choices are 3♥, 4♥ or double. 4♥ is clearly wrong since you might have zero points. 3♥? Would I bid 3♥ on a weaker hand just to compete? Say I take away the Q♣. I might still bid 3♥ and now 4♥ is quite a poor contract. So what would double by me mean now? Still for take-out I think but probably telling you that I only have 3 card ♥ support and the minor suits. So I don’t think double is appropriate. So I think 3♥ was the best bid. Should you bid 4♥ now on your crap 4333 8 count? To me that looks very pushy. So maybe we just have to accept that we cannot bid game here with any confidence." He suggested that on my hand double followed by 3♥was better. 3. I just wanted to know if a 2nd double ostensibly showing 3 card heart support and the minors followed by 3♥ over partner's 3m then showing an invite in hearts was a good understanding. 4. South made a bid that many would make with 5 spades only so we did miss a good 4♥contract and I hate missing good games at teams. And that is why I posted.

PS Nigel is always overgenerous with his alternatives :P

[hv=pc=n&w=s94haq62da6ckq962&e=sjt6hk983dk105cj85&d=e&v=b&b=10&a=p1sdp2h2s3hppp]266|200[/hv] I was west and we missed a good vulnerable game contract. As you see I doubled thinking it obvious. However, one ex partner I gave the hand to criticised my initial double and gave more or less the same reasons as rmn447 for preferring an overcall of 2♣. I disagreed. Nevertheless we didn't get to 4♥. The problem with my 3♥ bid is that it suggests that I am merely competing and not inviting and a second double suggests a 3 card heart suit and the minors suits. A team member suggested that if I double and then convert my partners minor suit bid (assuming she does not jump) to 3♥ this becomes a 4 card invite to 4♥. This seeems like a good idea. Any comments on this?

[hv=pc=n&w=s94haq62da6ckq962&d=e&v=b&b=10&a=p1s]133|200[/hv] Teams. Do you double or overcall 2♣?

BTW east not to blame.

IMO West has a very tough decision. Assuming E-W are playing weak no trump then East can infer that west is unbalanced and likely has a 3 card heart suit. Thus likely 1345 and a min opener. What can West infer? East is 5233 or 5242 for the take-out double? Or have NS got a 9 card fit and so 5143? If 2♥is a make as is quite possible, then a making 3 level 8 card fit is unlikely. As west I would therefore go for 2N which I expect partner to take as natural, but if he pulls it to 3♣ I wont be upset.

Here is an earlier 11 page thread on this topic that got ugly. Extreme patience is required to read all of it. http://www.bridgebase.com/forums/topic/51887-puppet-stayman/page__hl__%2Bpuppet+%2Bstayman

The basic problem I think is that 1♦- rebid 2♦has such a wide range in Standard. Here North has 7 playing tricks and I would value this a worth a jump to 3♦. Then the slam is easy to reach. Acollers who play a strong 2♦ (perhaps a dying breed) would happily rebid 3♦. And multi 2♦ers who incorporate a near game minor could do so also. How strong do the posters play a rebid of 3♦?

My understanding of the EBU laws re the multi where the following are relavent to the discussion 11G6 The multi 2 ♦ must contain a weak option and one or 2 strong options. (ii) At least 1 strong option must be of reasoble frequency. (v) Responder is expected to explore game possibilities if his hand justifies it opposite the stronger option of opener's multi 2♦ If these rules have not been changed recently then the questions that arise are: What is a reasonable frequency? 24+ balanced = about 1 in 2000 hands. 20+ bal = about 1 in 100 hands. Then you could argue that if your strong option is bal 20 you could reasonably pass as game is still speculative whereas opposite 24+ you MUST explore further. I play multi with one partner in EBU land so I would like an answer.

Great MP problem. Sorry don't know how to do the spoiler. You would get a near top if you found this play on a club night so not for novice/beginners. If I am right it would work when East has 2434, 2443, 3433 playing it Plan A. However, we know (unless East was a super devious player or just plain careless) that East has exactly 3 diamonds. Or if East started with 4432 you have to play plan B. So play for the former and in accordace with Eagles hint.

Yes playing my partner's strong club system. 2♥ 10-15 5♥+ 5 minor or 6♥+5♠ 2NT Ask 3♥ 14-15 5♥ =5♣ 3♠ shortage ask 3NT 1st step = 1 ♦ 4♣ 6 key card ask 4♠ 3rd step = 2 or 5 where A=2, K=1 6♦ assume 5 pass Sorry to be so nerdy. But I put some work into learning the system particularly the follow-ups to 5-5 opening bids, so I like to test it at every opportunity.

I am interested in how the bidding would go playing: 1. Acol 12-14 no trump with and without Crowhust 2. SA 15-17 5542 or 5533 with: simple 2♣ check back; new minor forcing; 2-way check back; transfer Walsh. [hv=pc=n&s=sqj987haj854d5ct8&n=sthkqt6dajt2cak65]133|200[/hv] It is MP pairs btw if that influences your decision. If South opens 1♣ there may or may not be an overcall of 1♦by East. I am particularly interested in how Acol players would bid this. Thank you in advance

Yes that is even more interesting: [hv=pc=n&s=skthj9dca&w=s9hk8dc95&n=sha7d7c86&e=sqjhqdcjt]399|300[/hv] So East believing that his partner holds 95♣ decides that he can afford to ditch the 10♣. South discards 9♥ and west 9♠. Then declarer plays a small club to the Ace. Next he cashes the K♠ and west is squeezed in ♣ and ♥.

I happened to be kibbing the 6♦ contract played by Garozzo and remarked to a fellow kibber that it was a pity not to see if the master could find a squeeze play to make 7♦ although I could not see a squeeze in it seeing all 4 hands. Now I can see the squeeze play I am interested to know the name of it. Criss-cross guard squeeze? Stepping stone guard squeeze? Following Gnasher's and MrAces' precepts we get to: [hv=pc=n&s=skt6hj9dca&n=sha7d7ck86]133|200[/hv] The play would be: On the 7♦East throws the Q♥ having previosly thrown 2 small spades 4 and 10 clubs and 10♥. Asssuming the Q♣ lead marks East with QJ10, then East is marked with guarding the spades and clubs since the Q♥ discard has to be forced. Now East has to be void in hearts so west's K♥can be finessed. For me a very instructive squeeze play

1. A strong balanced hand 20+ 2. Running minor 8-9 playing tricks 3. ditto

Because then there is no alternative but to take the club finesse so he drives you to the right line. "if S holds K of clubs, why didn he just return club at trick two? what can he gain by playing A of spades? i mean, if S led from singleton he has to play low spade at trick two in order to bring declarer down, playing the ace has no benefits." Yes I see that is even better. "if you do take the club finesse and it holds, 3-1 trumps doesn´t bother you" Yes I should have spotted that "if you decide to not take the club finesse you should at least try to ruff out some clubs, maybe the king drops (although unlikely)" The king does drop in 3 but when trumps are 3-1 it does me no good.

Just realised that making the contract by finessing the club at trick 3 is not straightforward. If trumps break 3-1 I need to ruff out the K♣ on the 3rd round thus getting 2 diamond discards. If North has ♣Kxxx, then I cannot get a 2nd diamond discard on the clubs then I have to hope that hearts are 2-2. So line 1 just gives you that extra chance when hearts break 3-1.

[hv=d=e&v=n&b=2&a=pp1cd1n2hp5hp]133|100[/hv] What is the meaning of the bid of 5♥ (a) the normal meaning (b) your preferred meaning

Belated reflections on this deal in which I was declarer and let down my partner to the tune of 9 imps. [hv=pc=n&w=st8hajt7653dkt6c4&e=sqj94hkqd987caqjt&d=n&v=e&b=9&a=1s1np4dp4hppp]266|200[/hv] South led 7♠ to north's King, followed by the ace, South following with the 6. North then made the pressure play of the 3♣. 2 lines of play suggest themselves: 1. Play North for the king on the basis of the bidding. If it loses you are down, if it wins you will make. 2. Take with the ace and play ♥ KQ. If they break 2-2 then you make with an overtrick. If 3-1 and 3 with North then you make if A♦ is with South. Otherwise you are down. The a priori odds without the indications from the bidding narrowly favour line 2 I believe. With the bidding it is virtually impossible for South to have both the A♦and the K♣so the odds on success with line 2 becomes 40 odd percent. The lesson to me is that North's club play at trick 3 forcing me to an immediate decision shows quality and "sorted me out good and proper." Cockney expression Comments:

Probably wrong but I will play declarer for 2434 distribution with 2 small spades. So I will encourage with the 8♦. When declarer plays on spades I will eventually win with the 10. In the meantime partner and declarer will discard twice. Unless partner actively discourages hearts I will return the 2♥. Sooner or later partner will get in and lead a 10♦ and then another when the K isnt played. Then I hope that partner has the Ace or King of clubs and so is able to cash his winning diamond. Declarer makes 4 spades 1 diamond, 1 club and 1 or 2 hearts. In truth I find this a very tough problem and maybe Billw has the simpler solutiion.

Your description (if a bit out of sequence) indicates that declarer is 4234. Overcalled 1♠ on AQxx. Partner is 2533. Then there is no endplay since a ruff/discard does declarer no good even if you do not unblock with the King. My guess is that you neglected to say that partner discarded on the 2nd trump, and therefore declarer started with 3 clubs and partner started with Q10xx. Some obsevations about the initial defence: The 2♥ lead expecting (hoping) partner to have the queen is a suit preference lead asking for partner to return a club. Just holding ♣Kx is not a good reason to make this play. Partner didnt recognise this and played ♦A and a low diamond. Did partner continued because you incorrectly encouraged? Partner's continuation was a low ♦ indicating an even number of diamonds and strongly suggesting 2 for a diamond ruff. This was not the case.