apollo1201

Qulifying this hand as a constructive ralse would be a gross overbid (the SA is great but a doubleton Q and the HJ are dubious values). However, it has full values for a direct raise (6-8 I guess then, too bad you didn't specify ranges for option 1 and 3) and above all it is key to show partner asap we have a fit and some (moderate) values in case opps compete so that he can decide. So option 3 it will be.

Hi xbabarx As bill pointed out, a 2S rebid implies a 2-suited hand with longer Ds and sets a GF: AQxx x AKJxx AJx A balanced hand could even have longer S than the minor if C are opened (eg 4333 hand), rarer with D (unless your partner preferred to open 1D with 4333). So the options are when you are 18-19 balanced to bid a non-forcing 1S if you decide 2NT denies, or have a system to find back S while stil catering for a 5-3 H fit (the famous checbacks, as several versions are played).

Play the recommended structure over a 15-17 NT but with 1 point more 😄 More seriously, decent 9 to bad 10 invite, decent 10 push to game. And partner is expected to accept with 16 or 15 *HCPs* with extras (eg 5 card minor provided you didn't already count 1 for it, 10s and 9s, etc.).

Ok, my clubs are not great, but all the rest is working (unless p has a D void, in which case I'll apologize or pretend I considered my C holding as Hxx - the BIG TEN 😃).

Reverse the majors and it is an easy 3NT. Now, Axx facing the likely singleton plus the extra strength (16 nice HCPs) push me towards X, although I'm not confident on how we'll continue, bid slam when it's there or stay out of it when it is not. I don't mind playing 5m at imps, but I hope I didn't skip the last makeable game if partner is just 2452....

Partner has some kind of 1354 with 15-17 HCPs. All our honors are working, but slam is unlikely (x AQx AKxxx KJxx is a max and so-so slam). It is IMPs so 5D.

Given our relatively modest power, and also because we are red, we can rely on partner to have some values. So balance of strength is close to 20-20 (with opps likely to be a bit ahead of us). For all the reasons stated above, total tricks are unlikely to be 16. I have S honors so the chances of an X by opponents who aim for the magic 200 are reduced. Responder might even be tempted to venture to the 4 level if he has a fit with some C honors as well that could be worthless on defence. And I love my J💜. So count me in for the bidders.

Although I don't fit partner with 3, if I did, I don't think the hand is that good a 2-level raise as your suit is so-so and you mightbbe forced to trump Hs with S honors. So (and again even protected by my initial opening which is limited to 16? 18?) I would not bid over even 3H. Let alone 4... With Jxx x AKxxxx Kxx It is a different story. You also'have to keep in mind that the 4H bidder can be strong with defence.

☺️ Seems all leads are equally repulsive. I had led the DA thinking it would be dummy's singleton by fear of helping declarer finesse my partner's Qxx or Jxxx trumps if I led S, or establishing dummy's suit if I led C. And as H are shorter, I was more likely to cause damage than from leading a long suit. Sure enough, dummy was 4126 and declarer had the DK (but the contract makes on any lead).

W (obviously) psyched the 1D opening as E seems to have around 10 and partner some kind of (semi) positive hand. I'm not sure how positive it is re. HCPs and S's though: 8-10 and 4, 5-8 and 5, or even less? What is the preferred treatment of the answer? As I'm unsure I cue-bid to avoid playing a 4-3 fit with my QJ having to trump D's, and also because it is not impossible that partner stops D if W completely psyched in a non-existing suit like ATxx or QJxx (I've seen it done before) so 3NT could still be our spot.

Agree with Wesley's comments. I blasted once with xxx H and Q well guarded. Partner also had xxx H and after I lost the first 4 tricks, I made all the others. Obviously, 5D is off... So unless you have substantial extra strength or shape that may allow for 11 tricks, aiming for 3NT with "limited" and balanced material is surely best. Blasting or cueing is a matter of partnership's style, and all contributors mentionned the pros and cons of each method. Personally I use both. On the hand you gave, a positional semi-stopper like Qx would probably tempt a lot into blasting in order to right-side the contract.

The rationale for light opening in 3rd is that strength could be at best 4u balanced between the 2 sides. So you must try to fight for the partscore, indicate a good lead, and from times to times find a good game or sacrifice. All that is similar to the objective of an intervention. That is why opening a hand which is an "unconditionally clear" intervention is allowed, provided you have means to pull the brakes. In all cases with the hand you gave, I would not pass 1S in a potential 4-2 fit. Hrothgar comments are completely ok. Partner should not propell you to 2NT or above and you need some kind of relays to describe opener's strength and shape if responder is max of his initial pass.

MP decisions, all red iirc this deal from our national final this WE, bidding goes 1S-1NT (not playing fancy stuff like 2/1 or forcing NT): AKTx AQTxx QT xx My partner loved all those tens (which proved crucial when I ended up playing 3NT on a spade lead to Q and C return, J ducked, S to T, AQ H and nothing bad in D): 9xx J 9xxxx AKQx Except this result mearchant as I was really super max, would you have invited? I know some have a structure in which 2NT is art GF (eg strong hands with a bad 6-suit, 5332 with 3 hearts or a low doubleton H, etc.) so playing this it is harder to invite I guess.

At IMPs, I close my eyes and bid 3NT. I had an excellent 17 count that grew even bigger (KJx D have almost been converted to AQx except I can't duck any). Partner probably have Cs and Hs. Now at MPs. Oh well, you said partner was good? He'll manage to make 9 tricks. At red he probably didn't bid with a lousy 4-5 count.

You are greedy! I might try with AK H and out because the first 3 tricks would likely be ours. Here it is less clear and having them minus could be enough for a good score.

I think I'd pass too. I have some extras, yes, but partner with a nice 8+ to 10 would jump? And my hand doesn't have a quick establishable source of tricks. And the fact that we managed to avoid S puts us more on the + side. At IMPs it would be harder but I'd pass too (unless weak opponents who give 1 or 2 tricks away in defense). Sometimes preempts work (we say in French you have to "pay" the barrage).

MPs, all red LHO deals and opens 1C, your partner passes and RHO bids 1S. You conveniently decided to play 1NT as a two suiter longer in the cheaper suit so that is what you bid: x AQxx AQTxxx xx It doesn't impress much LHO who jumps to 3S, nor RHO who bids 4. After 3 passes, find the lead now...

Not bad maybe, but not good definitely: no fit for partner, no long suit, and xxx in rho (who rates to be strong). I'll pass now but the serious things will happen when lho's 2S is passed back to me...

Thanks Graham. All that makes sense. And I like the weak 55 possibility to transfer in D's. I used "supper accept" with a lack of better term (I'm not a native speaker), maybe "shows enthusiasm" is better :)

Sry for the digression but can someone pls explain why 2NT is better w/o fit vs. 2NT = super acceptance? If respondent is very weak the hand needs to be played in 3C regardless of the fit so to rightside the contract, 3C = no fit (most common answer) is best. When opener super accepts, some of the weak hands will choose 3NT so less hands will be played in 3C anyway so no need to have them bid by opener. Or did I miss sth? I agree on 2NT openings, opener bids NT if he doesnt like respondent's minor, but in that case responder is GF+, not here.

Transfer to C. If partner "super-accepts" by bidding 2NT (Hxx fit and quick tricks on the side so that if I transfered with HHxxxx I can try 3NT) we are on a good way. Then I'm torn between 3D natural and game forcing but it shows 55 for us with usually more concentrated values in minors, or 3S (singleton H) but it is a K. I'll try 3D hoping partner doesn't fit me too violently because ar least it conveys the message a major singl.

Yep, agree with inverted raises: 1C - 2C (11+, 5+ clubs) 3NT (18-19 bal with stoppers and only 3 clubs) - 4C (start cueing pls) 4D (cue) - 4NT (he stops H and I have QJ so we don't have 2 H losers) 5C (3 kc) - 5D (queen?) 5H (yes plus HK) - ? Now you have to hope partner has 4H or sth good happens to the 13th S, partner being supposedly 4423 or (43)33 and shouldn't have 4D's. I dunno how to ask this...

What do you do with Axx xxx QJx AQxx You just need some kind of H stopper from partner to make 3NT (eg AK 6th D and HK, or AK 5th, HK and a side goodie or a successful finesse in C, presumably the 2nd suit of opener). Although here you make 5D thanks to opener being maxmaxmax for his balance, not sure I'd manage to be in it after 3H-4C. But in all cases it is not a limit raise, it is a try to the best D game ever: 3NT. Balancer can show a 4-cd suit in S or find some other descriptive bid if his H holding is not adequate.

With 8 you invite over a 15-17NT so with 11 you should do so over a 12-14 NT. On top of that, the hand has excellet features (side AK+K and small doubleton). So even in MPs it is clear. The digression about planning to play a 4-3 fit at the 2 level if partner answers 2D is just nonsense. When you are not weak, you pass 1NT if you are 44 , and you invite with an inviting hand which is what I have right now.

I am borderline between 3S (strong 4-cd support) and 4H (distributional with intermediate strength). I would go for 3S since even though 16 HCPs can be assessed to an intermediate strength, those AK need revaluation. Pass from partner is forcing if I bid 3S, I am now bidding 5H because of the shape. I could hold a flat 18 or 19 count for my cue bid, with say Kx of spades, with which I would X now to express my doubts about the 5 level. Pass from partner is (probably) not forcing after a descriptive 4H bid, so I would X now to show these defensive tricks I overlooked with my previous bid.