apollo1201

Dears, for my non-native speaker understanding, could some one pls explain what is 1-round force? I understood it as it promises a rebid (unless partner bids game) but is not GF. So no need to blast 3NT with good 14 or "shaped" 15-17 not suitable for 1NT opening. Which would be necessary if the free 2H bid is just forcing but not auto-forcing and could be a little lighter than a "traditional" non-2/1 2-level bid (eg a good 9-10). Based on some other thread answers (xavierf) and the ones above, it does not seem so clear to me now... Thanks!

I would say similar to DONT: X is one-suited so XX should show a one-suited hand

Hi, it should show: - 6 or 5 good "sequenced" cards (eg. QJTX9x) in your suit so that you can avoid too many trump losers since you will often play there facing a singleton - a strong allergy to opener's 1st suit (if you have a doubleton, you are sure of at least a 5-2 fit that will often be a decent spot) - less than inv values (the idea when game is probably a no-go to stop as early, as low and as safe as possible in a playable contract)

Thanks for your comments (I wanted to post in intermediate/adv but scr*** up from the phone). I too felt we did the right thing with partner (I was the strong hand) as the preemptor's partner pushed to 5S over partner 4NT, which I doubled for -2. He had AKxx spades and the 5 remaining diamonds headed by KQJT and never suspected we might have ended up in 5D!

IMPs, all green, LHO deals and opens 3S, partner passes, RHO supports to the 4th level and you hold xx KQJx A9xx KQx Want to try? Over X, what would you bid with (I hope all agree with the first pass): - Axxx xxxx ATxxx As a last question, if bidding goes pass pass after 4S, what is X now? Penalty because you could have taken-out at the 3 level and you presumably don't balance now so high? Or is it like 1S 2S pass pass X? Thanks for your answers! And sorry again to have a long post full of subquestions😀..:

You don't have a collection of rubbish at all. All your goodies are outside of H and are support for partner's honors, or are sitting after responder's aces. Facing an average TOX, you have good chances of making 5m, and it scores probably more setting 4HX (opener is red so should not have a rubbish that goes -3). 4NT should convey this message. 5C is okay but not as good imo. The rest about 4S and XX being sos is just a bit of a nonsense as every1 pointed out.

ROFL🤣

Usually after a sequence showing a 9+ card major fit, you don't play 3NT (whereas with a 5-3 or 6-2 fit, you could really consider playing 3NT). So 3NT after 1M-3M can be used as a slam try asking for the lowest ranking control, which freezes bids in a suit to show a clear 2-suiter needing some complement for slam (and please partner, discount heavily the KQJs in the other suits). If respondent feels the hands fit well, he is expected to cooperate (control, 5-level bid...) while if he has lost points he is supposed to go back to 4M, not denying the skipped controls (if any) but just showing doubts about higher contracts. Of course with ❤️ you can make sth fancier to save 1 level vs. ♠️. On the few occasions I had to bid like this, we called good slams and avoided a bad one. But as experts have diverse views, it is essential that you and your partner play the same thing, whatever it is!

Omg. He's back.

I have 4-5 tricks. My relatively small number of HCPs makes me believe that partner is not too minimal (such as 1444 with 8). It is therefore a likely 1 trick set if we don't have game, or 2+ if we have. Souvenirs of my maths classes tell me that +200 is better than +1xx and similarly +500 than +4xx. So I pass. Things will get trickier if responder runs away and partner doubles. At leat will I have 2 trumps and 2 aces (one might get ruffed though).

I play splinters as "not superstrong" (good opening with a singleton) so there will be some holes in the pointed suits. Change my HK to SK and we might find a perfect match opposite. So here, I just sign-off (and no strong NT and even less a 3S raise which would be more unbalanced).

Thx all for your comments but I just realized I typed LHO instead of RHO! Apologies to all for the confusion, but except the right-wrong siding of NTs (which I didn't understand at first), your arguments about suit quality and so on convinced me I had done a good move by Xing too. The opponents actually strongly questionned my call after my (crazy) partner (boldly) jumped to 3NT (with a 10-count including KTxx S and 3 hearts) and duly made it, while 10 tricks in H were much harder to get.

IMPs, red vs. green. LHO deals and opens 2S while you were pondering between 1H and a non-systemic 1NT, both now insufficient bids... So what is best (or the least terrifying)? Ax AT8xx KTx A9x

IMPS, red vs green. Friendly duplicate game with not too strong opposition and not too strong partner too, who deals and opens 1C (in better minor, strong NT, 5cM style). RHO bids 2H. You are dealt the lightish but shapely following collection: JT987 (!) x KQ9xx xx Not sure if my pass is what all of you would approve, but bidding follows 3H pass pass. Thinking X would be penalties (why didn't I take-out dble on 1st round then?), I decided to balance with 3S. And soon ended up +620 after partner bid one more for the road with a highly thrilling hand (sth like KQxx Kxx xxx AJx) and opps forgot to open up Cs and freed my Ds so that I managed to pitch dummy's clubs (should be -100). The other room made +420 in H. Regardless of the outcome, is X on 1st round ok or too much? On the balancing side, is 3S ok now? What if 4H comes back as in the other room? Thanks. In all cases, the deal proved useful for post-mortem discussion on bidding after partner balances, and on defense play!

My preferred spots: - play 2H - defend 2S - play 3H (even after a 1st all red opening from my usually not too undisciplined partner) So I pass twice. I think my +110 became +100 or -100 became -110 but I think I can only feel scr*** and say well done to the opps. As it is sure I will not push them higher if I bid more hearts.

Pass. Patrner seems to have an offshape and potentially subminimal opening. I have a flat 9 with slow tricks if we count 6 running clubs, 9 tricks are far away. Not sure notrumpers will outscore us (120 vs. 110 or 130?), and I've already told my story. If they compete I can bid 3C.

Hi Curls. I'd say for 1 that it is forcing (even GF) as w/o the overcall. 5+ spades and semi-natural clubs at least. That said, with such an extreme distribution, you could cue before repeating your S. For 2, it is not forcing but highly encouraging, your partner having shown 0-8, it shows 18-20 kindof. The hand is a good example (with a little more, given the 6th spade, you could even jump to 3S). If you want to force with stronger hands, you have to cue after the X.

FWIW, I never transfer w/ 5-4 if invitational+. From weakest to strongest, here is the way I bid 5-5: - the ugly: transfer to S and pass unless opps balance - the "game if you have the miracle hand": transfer to H, then 2S - the "game, period": 4D - the mild slam try: transfer to S then 4H (slam if p has no wasted minor HCPs and good fitting major HCPs) - the seriously disappointed if we don't go to slam: transfer to S then 3H Facing a weak NT, OP's hand is a mild slam try.

Partner freely bid 3♣, I have an extremely offensive shape, and we are green, so I'd bid 4♣, catching up from my prior misbid, which I understand was considered safer facing an unknown partner...but next time you do this, you'll find a partner who plays it as inverted even after intervention :lol:!

A few considerations: - with normal breaks, I can hope to make 10 tricks alone so I should be worth some kind of GF opening - NT contratcs would not play better as even if I can establish my suit, a AK stopper might not stop the run of opponents suit and communication to dummy (if he raises some kind of super 2NT opening to 3 with 2 queens and Jx hearts) could be a nightmare - even if I have a bad suit, it is still a 7-carder and partner if he has some points and wants to explore slam should consider external As and Ks (good thing, he has none!) and H honors in his decision so I believe we shouldn't get overboard So I dare a 2C opening followed by 2H. With 6322 I would go for some 2NT (not playing puppet!).

Great examples! I'll try with my p but after a cue and 2NT to confirm a stop, she wouldn't bid 3NT w/ a singleton and I would not persist in 3NT with a single stopper. The natural furter descriptions (D fit, Hx support...) would drive us to the right strain and level I would say. I'm sorry we deviated *a lot* from the original thread. It just proves: - you need to be on the same page as partner - there is not a single method to reach some accuracy in bidding - good judgment helps a lot And all that somehow is what you try others to achieve with this series, don't u? Eager to see post 18!

Thanks Kaitlyn for answering. Since it wasn't specified in the bidding that 1S showed 5+, I thought it was 4+ only so indeed no 5-3 fit will be missed. This treatment is not standard where I live, I would say 50% of ppl only play the "sticky" how we call it (bidding the suit "stuck" to the intervention is 5+ while X is 4). The other half refuses because it obliges you to pass most 8-10 hands w/o stopper and w/o the "stuck" major. Actually some pairs even swapped the meaning of 1S (the bid of 1NT w/o stop) and X (4+ spades) in that sequence to ensure the overcaller will be on lead! So all fine but a last question (again maybe sth standard in NA but not here, I apologize in advance), in the example responder passes 2C with 2-3 in minors but should he not get back to 2D to keep the bidding open just in case and to offer the (supposed) 5-2 rather than 4-3 fit? Finally, those examples prove that even "beginner's" material can be tricky. In all cases I always read them very interestingly.

Yes, red is vul and green is non-vul. As for artificial bids, I'm not 100% familiar with this concept as it is not commonly played in my country but someone mentionned Jacoby 2NT or stuff like that (but I believe it implies 4-cd support, so they must have sth for big hands with only 3-cd). Or Bergen raises for more limited hands. Again, the most important is not the convention itself but drawing inferences when it is (or not) used. The following sequences must convey different types of hands: 1S-2D-2S -> 3S / 4S or 1S-> 2NT / 3NT. So it can help opener visualize if hands work well together and if slam can be safe or not. If you decide to play a convention just to look like the good players who adpoted it and feel you're part of this "elite", but can't actually develop the subsequent bidding or draw the inferences, it is just snobism. I would say there is some pressure to do so because (at least where I live) lots of weak or average-ish players do that, just because it looks better to say I play multi 2D, etc. - but at the end of the day they didn't really learn or improve their game.

HI deftist! In the 1st hand, you are right, opener is protecting. He either has short Cs (and can stand his partner transforming the X) or some extras. Your 2C was fine. Now it is time to show tou extras and prevent them finding their major fit at the 2-level. Red, 3C is probably enough and will express long clubs with some extras since you didn't preempt but I wouldnt mind partner jumping to 4C (you have 9 tricks alone in a lo tof layouts). Green, a shot at 5C first round could have had some merits. On the 2nd hand, a general solution could be to have some artificial bids for invitational hands. This frees the 1S-2x-2S-3S as a forcing bid with slam interest. Or some systems have bids for strong but flattish fits such as your hand. Lots of major fit systems exist so be sure to be on the same wavelength as partner (!), and also do not forget when you use a system to remember the inferences on other bids / fits for majors when partner didn't use such bids. Here your analysis is correct. Partner could still be a bit richer though and have some 15-17 HCP with unsuitable stoppers in the round suits to bid NT or with 6 spades not strong enough to jump. Even some 12 HCP could produce slam (AKxxx xx Kx Kxxx) so not all hopes are gone. After a forcing bid, partner is not obliged to bid slam anyway so he can make some negative bids (and you would respect his decision with no obvious souce of tricks of your own) pr cooperate (which would help you diagnose of clubs are controlled btw).

Just a small question on sequence 3. Is it standard to play that the 1NT "forced" rebid in contested auctions guarantees a stopper? I thought it did not promise anything other than 12-14 bal. I bet bidding 1D then 2C with this flat balanced 4432 hand will lead quite often to play 4-3 if not 4-2 fits when 1NT (even losing the first 5 tricks) is better, not mentioning spades are burried unless partner had 5 very good ones or 6 and repeats them. If you give partner a possible hand such as KJXxx xxx Qx xxx, good luck!