apollo1201

I can’t recall which great player (also gifted with a sense of humor) said that splinters were the most efficient known method to play in a 1-1 fit at the 4 level. It reminds me of the already quoted and infamous 1S-4H sequence that my opponents had, I have to lead from the very unappealing following collection x xxxx xxxx xxxx and decide to go for my singleton that partner surprisingly ruffs. Dummy was 51(43) and his partner 71(23)!

It seems you don’t use the cue bid and NT (I play the same except X and pass are reversed, X = values without good suit to bid or stoppers). I play cue = 3-suited (5431 ok) and 2NT stopper with values and GF obviously.

For the fact, we collected 150 as expected by some of you. 3NT was a shaky contract normally going gown as nothing split favorably and H were blocked (Kxxx with partner but 10xxx for opener).

IMP pairs, all green. LHO deals and opens 1D (better minor, could be 3 if 4432), followed by 2 passes. What now with x AQJ AJ987xx Ax Nice hand that would be an easy pass if they were red as we would just sit and count the hundred-point underticks.

Game supports (18-19) by opener the way I play them: - 3NT flat raise (my bid here therefore) - 4m strong 64 - splinters and fake reverses if too strong - 4M mostly 5422 hands (can be swapped with 3NT) You need to distinguish hands with a source of tricks from hands less suitable for slam since you are blowing all the bidding space. I guess declarer was disappointed by dummy's clubs playing 6S.

Agree with Helen. 1S is 4SF, non-GF yet, 9+ if natural (minimum QJxx x KQTxx Jxx to have preferred 1D to 1S) or 11+ if artificial (you bid 1NT with for instance xxx Qx AJxxx Qxx). I use 2S as a GF 2-suiter, 5+D, 4+S but not necessarily concentrated values. When opener rebids 1H, he can still (the way I currently play) have 3 clubs, 4 spades, and up to 18 points. Follow-up sequences with opener being unbalanced 15-18 with 3S, or balanced 18-19, with or without S stopper, can be tricky though.

I play rebid 1st suit if nothing special to say. So I’d rebid 3S. After all, partner maybe just wanted to right size NTs or is contemplating a rock crusher. And if desperately she puts me in 4S with Hx or Tx, I could probably survive or fail like every other table. I think it is too early to by pass 3NT even if AK of clubs are good cards. The rest of my hand is not a dream, if it is just what partner needs, she’ll keep bidding. After all I’ve opened...

I would believe same (12-14 or 18-19, in the latter case, opener makes further noise, 3NT being some kind of 4441 15-17). To avoid tricky 23-points game, it is advisable: 1) to avoid bidding 2C with invite hands with 5 clubs; they should try to bid 2NT if not overly frightened by majors (eg Jxx KQx xx AJxxx) 2) to avoid bidding 2NT with 12 unless very good M stoppers or 3-cd D sui only; it is too dangerous to rebid a 3-cd suit (if you have that, then you are 44 M and probably stop well « enough »)

Wish him or her luck😁

I don’t precisely remember but I think she forgot to duck Hs...

Partner doesn’t always rebid 2H but sometimes 3 or 4...and he would be disappointed I guess. It is generally agreed that after an overcall, 2x is not GF (I guess you play 2/1 but it is for unobstructed auctions). So the hand is strong enough under this considerations / agreement.

Not necessarily unfortunately, especially at IMPs (unless the suit is really weak and the Major robust). But I would not bypass AKxx as I held here. Except that, I agree with the rest of your comments😃. It is slightly easier to handle in auctions like 1M-2D-3D that 3M is either fit or problem of stop in the other M, while 3oM is problem in Cs. And here it is too hard to play 3S as 6+ or problem with H. With an auction at 3C instead of 3D you can easily bid the suit you stop, or unambiguously give an fit / show a 6-carder below 3NT. Seems we’re stuck!

Probably the funniest and most temping post of this overall slightly boring mine is bigger than yours thread. No surprise it comes from a woman then🤣

Diamonds cramp up space bidding vs. Clubs, there are some ways to deal with it, but here? You deal and open 1S at red IMPs, partner bids a (F) 1NT, you show your 2nd suit with 2D and partner supports your Ds at the 3rd level: 1S-1NT 2D-3D Red IMPs, with the presumed 5-cd D suit opposite and good chances of running the suit, and overall nice values, you want to move now, but how... K9xxx x AKxx AJx I punted 3NT. Partner didn’t escape the H lead, but she had Qx Axxx xxxxx Kx and played at top level to see that the D ran, and that the CQ was friendly that day. Was there a better way to bid, though, and assess if 5D or maybe 4S were better? Thanks!

With current NT openings, it could even be interesting to know how often the transfer will face a singleton K or A🤣

Ah ok. Big semi-balanced hand I try to be pragmatic. I wouldn’t even blame partner with the given hand to rebid 2NT 😇 (which strongly eases the discovery of a 44 S fit btw).

Starting with 2NT rather than 3C maybe? Going on 3NT with 10xxx facing partner’s likely singleton is probably exaggerating.

All points in your suits, easy rebid. Only very strict ppl would pas. Compare to Jx Axx Kx Qxxxxx which now most would pass.

Given that you were not obliged to bid after partner XXed, your jump to 2H tended to show some kind of freakish and weakish (HCP-wise) red 2-suiter (although probably not as extreme as this one LOL). It is not a reverse contrary to what others mentionned. Despite that, and knowing doubler might have some of them, partner jumped to 4S. So either his 1st bid was not a contender for the best bid hand of the century, or he is not super excited by your hand and wants to end the auction. Maybe after all, hands distributions around the table is partner 7114, LHO 4414, and RHO 2245. I believe we have to pass (and let partner survive his bidding), but at the table I would not do it quickly enough...and try 5D which would now likely be Xed by LHO sitting behind me with the Hs I so gently advertised.

We exactly said the same at the same moment 😄

East is indeed too strong for 1H-3H rebid. 8 playing tricks is an old style « strong 2 » that I can fortunately show after a 2C-2D start. West even with a minimum fit has 11 HCP with good controls and presumably can show some enthusiasm in the bidding. 2C 2D 2H 3C 3H 3S (4H would not be enough at that stage) 3NT 4H (4C would be a bit too much, if partner passes slam was probably bad) 4NT (rich hand and hoping partner doesn’t have the SK!) 5D 6H (after all the noise partner made he has some fit + some C suit and SA so slam is probably a good bet)

🤣

Maybe you can have a look at this page to avoid translation issues and’so others can understand or answer better. https://sites.google.com/site/bridgemarly/bridge/tournoidu2juillet In’all cases the above auction shows extras from opener. If the bidding is 1Club - (1Spade overcall) - 2Diamonds from partner, if you bid 2❤️ it is not even a 2-suiter you could even have Jxx AKJx xxx KQx

4NT. Way too much offensive potential and lengths to make 500 a likely shot. Plus sometimes partner bids 5H... Partner could figure out that with 7C and stoppers you’d have bid 3NT and not 3C at your 1st turn. So unless you discovered the SA between the 2 rounds of bidding, 4NT is clearly a 2-suiter with longer C (6-4, 7-5, usually 2-cd difference unless you can’t show all 2-suiters 5-5 in one bid, as would have done 3S for me with your hand for minors)

I’d downgrade a little too (singleton A not always the greatest card) and bid 2NT to avoid the « have I done enough » syndrom over a 2NT Lebsnsohl. And the C singleton is screaming that the auction will get awkward over the Lebensohl. Xing also obliges you to decide what to do over the answer from partner. 2NT has more straightforward follow-ups and will ease the sequence. If partner has ~7+, he won’t let you down. If he has less, we will probably play there which will be no worse than 3C in 5-1. Or 3NT with 19+4. We can also find back the H with Stayman. Only downside is a weak partner with a 4 or 5-cd red suit. Be it. Preeempts work sometimes...