apollo1201

Who said that preempts do work, and that's why opps do it?

Omg just read the spoiler. What did u have as N? QJ 8th and out (or CK) with a void or 2 major singletons? After 2D opening, 5D seems right. After 4D mayabe pass hoping they dont go to 6 (which should make unless partner has a natural trick or a ruff if they play S)? Because if we push them, both opponents will be keen on adding one for the road because of the D void that their partner "wont expect".

Having made all that noise, I have now to respect partner's decision. 5D was already a strong move - but I like it too :-)

Extra values, yes, but flattish shape and KQ bare. If partner wants to go to 4C, he can, but I wont. Partner and oppener's partner seem to be minimal, but I am not sure of setting 3H (give 3541 to opener), I am not doubling. In the end I can only pass. I agree with 2C, 1N with KQ bare is not ideal for me, and I would X with less points in H or weaker C's, and more values in D.

The 2 level is safe for sure, even if p opened with a strong 4-cd and 10/11 points. The question is what will I do when 3D comes back to me...and knowing what pass, 2S and X by partner will help.

A typical wtf pass. Who said LHO has a 5332 12-count? If he had, p would have found some other bid than pass over 1S.

2S (agree with all above and Mr Ace closed the loop!). I could have a little less HCPs (how much more depends on tour agreements with partner, I play that non-X denies a goodish opening hand) but my shape is not great and I have no descriptive bid. 3D is probably a bit excessive although at IMPs with all those 10s and 9s I wouldnt blame my partner for commiting this bid as I wouldnt cue bid with a dull 12/13.

Supposing all the rest is natural, X is likely understood as a t/o for the reds (or could be either red with a S tolerance as a back up in case pard bids the other) with decent values considering the bidding (good 8 at least eg Qx Kxxxx Kxxx xx or Kx QJxx Axxx xxx).

I would pass. I can hope to set 3S with my defensive values, while partner despite his likely S singleton refused to bid game. I gave him all required info about my hand and he doesnt seem to think we have game, I have no reason to think differently. I dont think 4H will work as a transfer to 4S, and X seems to be looking for trouble or giving away the SQ position.

Oops sorry eagles I tried to implement a 2nd diagram but didnt succeed and forgot to mention a 4HCP 2335 hand. All non clubs are therefore spots not even a 10 I had!

Hi all, some tough / close decisions (that we didn't get all right!) from yesterday MP event. Vuln indicated when relevant. 1st - green vs. red, auction starts with pass pass and you're dealt the following collection AT9xxx x xxx xxx 2nd - all red [hv=pc=n&s=sq6h6daq963caqjt9&d=w&v=b&b=4&a=1np2d2n4hpp]133|200|Strong NT, 2D transfer to H, not promising values[/hv] 3rd - a defensive play to change from bidding decisions ;) You're dealt a 2325 hand with your only HCP in A8743 in clubs, all other cards being small pips. Your RHO deals and opens 1NT (strong), LHO staymans, and bids an invitational 2NT when the openers denies majors with 2D. After some thought, RHO bids 3NT. You lead the C4 as 4th best, dummy hits with xxxx KQxx Kx 652 (leaving all high Cs with partenr and declarer). Partner wins the K, declarer dropping the 10. Partner then continues with the J, covered by the Q. Your move.

W probably wouldn't bid 2H with a suit headed by QJ with only the DK and 1 or 2 black jacks so probably has the CA. Can he have AJx? We can suspect H are 6-2 because of no preempt (but with all the missing honours he would not preempt in 2nd seat though). So unless D are very irregularly distributed or E has a violent SD 2-suiter, W shouldn't have 3C. Running the maths is too complicated for me but although not unlikely, I still think W will not have AJx so I would lead small towards the Q. Did I just go down?

The forcing nature of the jump to 3♠ essentially depends on your major-fit style. If 1♠-3♠ is invitational with a guaranteed 4+ cd-suport, then 1♠-2♦-2♥/♠-3♠ is probably invitational with 3 cards only. In a full natural system, I believe 2♠ after 2♥ could be a minimum hand (good 10 to bad 12) with a ♠tolerance (maybe Hx♠) and a (seriously) unsufficent ♣ guard to bid 2NT. But for slam easing purposes, it could be better to decide 2♠ is invitational fit and 3♠ is forcing (as previously mentionned by masse). This does not prevent you from deciding follow-ups when opener rebids 2♠ rather than 2♥(then you have to force with 3♣/♥ and express an ambiguous fit at the 3 level). Overall, you might wrongside some 3NT or land in pushy games. Sacrifying precision on parials to reach slam accuracy is good for IMPs but less for MPs. That is why lots of persons use some "gadgets" (in my case 2NT as I don't play Jacoby which does not fit too well with my other fits) to express the invitational with 3 cards support and render further fits unambiguously forcing. You *obvisously* need to be on the same page as partner on those auctions. And absent special agreements aimed at easing further bids and clarifying situations as forcing or not, those auctions are tricky to handle...

Thanks all for your anwers. Exclusion and Q question is probably the best way to handle the hand enabling a stop at 5 while playing 7 facing a "long" Ace of trumps. As you suspected I bid 5NT to play 7 with AQxx opposite. I hoped D wouldnt misbehave but if partner turns with 1, 2 or 4 it should be ok. If 3 she must have Q, or J and Q falls singleton, or 22 break. I knew committing to slam would be tricky if she turned with poor H but some layouts offer a play for 1 loser (22 with Ace onside, etc.). My p had J9xx (yuck :angry: ) with doubleton D and the not so useless CA that proved to be the entry to her hand after the lead, to be able to lead trumps towards dummy at trick 2. She duly made 6 with stiff Q on the left and ATx on her right, she picked up the T on the 2nd round of trumps. I was so tense I cant tell whether vibrations and reactions around the table after dummy's appearance helped her or not. When we scored 980 and after being called bold, I just said with such a card player I have to be bold in the auction :D !

IMPs all green AK Kxxxx AKxxxx (void) You deal and open 1D (agree?), and partner pleases you by bidding 1H. Opponents even overplease you by passing throughout. What do you bid? I'll disclose later the auction and outcome as well as pd's hand. As a hint, she said I was bold while opponents called me crazy...

It is funny, it reminds me of a deal where the auction came back on my 2nd turn at 6S after partner doubled a D artificial bid, and I bid 7 with a similar hand (long D and a secondary suit). Opponents had a misunderstanding about forcing passes and went down 1 (partner had a side ace) so we got a top. On the other direction the top was for those who played 5S making 6 as 7DX scores less. I would have never bid 6 on 5 thinking they were 1 level too low. Nevertheless (and apologies for this long digression), I will also bid 5D. On my 1st turn I would bid 4NT at favorable only, but give me a little more green vs green, I dont want to be unnecessarily 500 down.

Playing 2/1 with forcing NT, RED, at MPs. x ATxx J9xxx ATx And of course the bidding goes 1S 1NT 2C. I couldnt bring myself to introduce so weak Ds (some even play it as a noncompulsory texas for H) and show preference with a small x (turn it into a Q or K and I might). Passing with 9 HCP in a potential 3-3 fit was also not great so I reluctantly went for 2NT although a whole HCP light for the call (lucky I had 2 ACES ans 2 TENS). I ended up in 3NT making with a friendly defense, a 3-3 break and a good 14 hand from partner. But what was I supposed to do?

Not an expert, I voted for pass is slightly better. I am not going to write a lot since Mikeh pointed out my fears. A bit weakish with unsufficient D fit. Even if 2NT makes, my partner will raise me to 3 and he needs to be very maximum for a chance to make. And if he passes 2NT I will change +90 or 110 into -100 or 200 way too often.

Wesley, you convinced me. But partner will bid S and the lead is now through my AQ :P

If I X and partenr doesn't bid ♠, I will have to lie about my stength when I rebid, and we could miss a (potentially challenging) 3NT, whereas if I bid 2NT and we belong in 4♠, then partenr will be strong enough to Stayman and find out about the fit. So I'll put the ♦7 in my ♥ and bid a 18-19 2NT with this 4324 hand. On the deal, partner will probably raise to 3, which I will make on a ♥ lead. On a ♦ lead and continuations, it is not over yet (I just lack the ten), but I will probably fail on ♦ lead and ♥ switch by RHO. But we've been in worse games before.

Diana, you'll have to post the whole sequence and hands as post-mortem now! :lol:

Having opened, now I have to answer partner's question. With no rebid issues and a QJ9 sequence in the suit, the 1H opening is ok (I even have the 10 of D!). I think my partenr will be more dissapointed by my hiding of the C shortness (answering to a question) than by my opening (exercising my judgment). It is not like if I had opened Qxx KJxxx Qxxx K.

I'd double, prepare myself for a bloodbath if partners converts it, raise 3♥ to 4, or more likely bid 3NT if patenrs bids 3♦ (no Lebensohl) or 2NT (Leb). It doesnt mean we'll make though!

AQJ x AQJxxx Kxx I dont remember the vul, IMPs, but form of scoring (and vul) probably irrelevant. You deal and bidding goes 1D 2H (weak) 2S (not GF, 5+ and 10+ HCP) 4H. I bid 4S and partner had of course the pointed kings and club ace (and nothing more). Could I have done more or just bad luck?

A bit unlucky but more on E as with 13 HCP, he *could* try more even if it it is pairs, even aceless, even if it ends up in 4NT instead of 3. Then W' with his control-rich hand and 4-trump support would get more excited. Hard to criticize him for going to 3NT at pairs potentially facing x KQx KQxxxx xxx.