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lowerline

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Everything posted by lowerline

  1. Partner must have extra values for this double so I bid 3nt. Give partner this minimum x-AQxxxx-Qx-KQxx... Steven
  2. Your partners hand is clearly a four-card limit raise, so he should have bid 2nt... After 1M-(dbl) I have 2nt, 3M or 4M available as 4+crd raises. With 3crd support I can only bid 2M or rdbl (and raise later). After 1M-(overcall) I have 2nt, 3M or 4M as 4+crd raises and 2M or cuebid as 3crd raises. Steven
  3. So partner has shown 2 of the top 3 diamonds (4♦) and 1 keycard (5♣)? If partner has the trump queen he can show a side suit king at the same time. This will help in constructing some hands for his 3♠ bid. If ♠KJ are missing, you still have some play with those intermediates in spades... Steven
  4. This has other problems: if you lead the K from AKx and partner signals positive you have no idea whether he has the J or the Q... And does partner always play low from a doubleton on the lead of the K? And what do you lead from KQxxx? Steven
  5. I do, because I play weak jump shifts. I also like to play the Bourke Relay/3SF, but I will only use that with a 6crd major if the suit is too bad for a jump rebid. Steven
  6. Win in hand. Spade to the 9. If you can take 3 spade tricks and lose no more than 2 diamonds, you are there. Steven
  7. True. But my opponents would cash their club winners first... Anyway, heart to the Q is the only thing you can do. Steven
  8. ♣A and finesse the ♥Q. If this looses and clubs are 4-4, you can still win on a squeeze if East has ♥JT and West has two spade honors doubleton or no spade honors at all. Steven
  9. Drop. West lead hearts and his first discard was spades. I don't believe his original holding in spades was Jxxxx... Steven
  10. I would have started with a double. Over partners likely 3♣ I bid 3nt. Steven
  11. ♥A for the Q, then ♥J. If there's a heart loser, you need the ♠Q onside (I assume ♠A is in West). Steven
  12. Double is automatic since partner can have a penalty pass. Steven
  13. I don't bid 6♥. I don't want to punish partner for stretching to 3♥. I would have overcalled 2♥, but now I bid 5♥ and will double 5♠ if they bid it. Steven
  14. 2♥ when not strong enough to reverse (11-14) 2♠ when strong enough to reverse (15+) Note that after a 1♥ opening responder will only skip a 4crd spade suit with 5 or more clubs, so he can bid 2♠ over openers 2♥. Not so after a 1♠ opening: if you don't rebid 2♥ you risk loosing the heart fit. Steven
  15. You have answered the question yourself. If 3♦ was invitational, 4♦ can not be slam going. That said, I think it doesn't make sense to play 3♦ invitational in the 2nd sequence... Steven
  16. This can not be a passed hand for me... Opener can have 4♥5♦, but then he will not have 3 spades. I play 2♥ as 3SF/Bourke Relay here. Then opener will bid 2♠ with 1-4-5-3 or 2-4-5-2 and the bidding can end in 2nt. However with a minimal hand with 6crd diamonds opener will bid 3♦ and now you regret that you did not pass 2♦. Vulnerable at imps I will try for game though. Steven
  17. I use the following rule: If they pass after our 1nt then system is on. So it does not matter whether 1nt was opened, overcalled or in balancing position. It matters what the next guy does. In balancing position: after their 1m opening the range is 11-14 but after their 1M opening the range is 11-16. Steven
  18. It is a good idea to play something like Wolff Signoff/Checkback Stayman... Then: the hand that wants to sign off in 3♠ goes via 3♣the GF or better hand with 5crd suit goes via 3♦the GF hand with 6crd suit bids 4♠the slam going hand with 6crd suit bids 3♠ Without such agreements, no signoff is possible and finding the 5-3 fit will go via the other minor. So the meaning is still slam going with a 6crd suit. Steven
  19. Warning: I play 2/1 inv+ 1♥-2♦ 2♥(1)-2nt(2) 3nt(3)-4H(4) (1) minimum (11-13) (2) GF, does not have to be balanced (3♦ or 3♥ are NF) (3) balanced (5332, maybe 4-5-2-2) (4) honestly... Steven
  20. Pass. It is very unlikely that this will be passed out. Usually opener keeps it open with a double (in case his partner has a penalty pass). If responder then passes for penalty I can bid 2♣ to play. Steven
  21. 1♠ - 4♣ (1) 4♥ (2) - 5♣ (3) 5♦ (4) - 5nt (5) 7♠ (6) (1) Splinter (2) ace or king (if shown only one suit, the first cue shows strength) (3) void (repeat of splinter suit) (4) single/void (because 4♦ was skipped) (5) grand slam try but denying heart control (so must have good trumps) (6) ♥AK is enough to bid the grand (if still in doubt about the trumps, 6♥ bid will work too) Steven
  22. With ♦AQxxx in West and ♦JT in East, it is likely East has ♠AK. I win the first trick, cross to the table in ♥ and play a spade up. Suppose East wins, cash his ♦J and exits with a ♥. After the run of the ♥, it is ♣Axxxx opposite ♠QT♦9♣Kx. The one that discarded two spades is guarding the clubs. If that is East you can throw him in with clubs and he has to bring your ninth trick in spades. If it is West you can only win if he started with the ♠J (cashing top clubs and throwing East in with spades). Steven
  23. Not really. Suppose you open a balanced 20-22 with 2♣. If partner responds a negative 2♦, you already know slam is unlikely. The idea is that a hand that can make slam opposite a balanced 20-22 is good enough to make a positive response to a 2♣ opening. Steven
  24. I think it is better to let partner in on the double fit by bidding 3♦ iso 4♣. The meaning of 4♣ is shortness, but I don't think it denies a spade control. Partners double shows he does not want to compete to the 5-level (but he might have felt differently if you had showed the diamond fit). Now pass. Steven
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