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lowerline

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Everything posted by lowerline

  1. I redouble when I can double for penalty in at least 2 unbid suits and when I have at least a doubleton in the 3rd unbid suit. I pass with any other strong balanced hand without a fit and double later (then more cooperative then penalty). I tend to bid when I have a fit or a really unbalanced hand. New suits are still forcing in my book. With the example given, I'd redouble after a 1♣ opening, but I'd bid spades after a 1♦ opening. Steven
  2. Looks like this already is a top or bottom deal... I want partner to make his normal lead. So I'm not doubling. Steven
  3. In your 2nd sequence opener is already limited to 14-15hcp. I'd say 3nt shows a very good club suit and a diamond stopper (a hand just not good enough to rebid 3C or 3nt before). In your 1st sequence I'd say opener has 4-1-3-5 or 4-2-2-5 and 15-17hcp. That said, I'm perfectly happy with the agreement to never bid 3nt in those sequences. Steven
  4. Either natural (4-6 or 5-6) or asking for a stopper. Steven
  5. I would have lead the Q to get an attitude signal. If partner shows the J, I will play the 6 next, asking for a club switch. Steven
  6. I think I will take the chance of ♦Kx in East. If the ♦K is in West and he switches to clubs I'm in trouble though... Steven
  7. Your hand fits your 3rd sequence. But now you give another sequence in which I double again with this hand. Steven
  8. balanced 20-22hcp without 4crd spadesbalanced 18-20hcp with only 2 spades3crd spade support, 17-19 (with 20+ you should bid 3D) Steven
  9. 1. RKCB 2. Natural, 18-19 with club stopper 3. RKCB 4. RKCB 5. RKCB, diamonds trump
  10. Forcing of course. You cannot invite in clubs. If you just wanted to play 3♣, you should have used Lebensohl. Steven
  11. Double is definitely not penalty, but partner can convert it of course... Steven
  12. I agree with not opening the North hand. But as a passed hand, North should respond 2♦ iso 1nt. This looks a reasonable bidding to me: p-1♥ 2♦-2♠ 3♦-3♥ 4♥-p Steven
  13. 2♥ is natural (5crd suit). 2♦ is the cuebid. Your double is just fine (strength & shape is ok). Steven
  14. I blame both. South for his 3nt bid and North for his 4♠ bid. South should have bid 4♣ instead of 3nt. The South hand is minimal in hcp's, but with a 6crd suit and 2 keycards not a bad hand for slam. North should have bid 4♣ instead of 4♠, showing he is still interested in slam but not strong enough to take control. In light of his previous 3nt South has a great hand for slam. Steven
  15. That's no problem unless you repeat the finesse... You start by cashing the clubs (discarding a diamond in hand). Now you run the ♠10 which looses. Then you cash the spades. Because spades are 3-3 you don't need the diamond finesse (discarding the ♦J on the last spade). Given the count in the black suits, you will play ♥K followed by a ♥ to the ten. Steven
  16. North. He could have started with a double or he could have raised to 6 with his perfect hand. Steven
  17. There is only one other thing you can show besides the diamond support: spades, clubs or the heart splinter. Pick one and bury the other two. I prefer to show the spades. After 1♦-1♠-1nt-2♣-2♠ I suppose 3♦ is GF. Bid 4♣ next and take it from there. Steven
  18. I would never assume '4th suit with a jump' to be a Splinter without prior agreement... I would have bid a forcing 3♦ with your hand. Besides, this is not an unnecessary jump because 2♥ would not have been natural (4SF). 3♥ is the only way to bid hearts naturally and to discover a possible 5-3 heart fit. 4♥ is the unnecessary jump and is clearly a Splinter. Steven
  19. 4th suit with a jump is natural and invitational to me. I see no reason to play it differently in this situation. Steven
  20. Playing 2/1 there is something to be said for playing 3♥ as invitational jump shift. Steven
  21. Do you play Walsh? Then the 1♥ rebid shows an unbalanced hand (probably a 5crd club suit). Responders 1nt rebid is probably showing a 5crd diamond suit (because he could have responded 1nt immediately or bid 2♣ instead). Openers 2♣ is showing a minimum 4-6. So responder probably has a maximum 3-3-5-2 with double stopper in spades (without a maximum he should pass and without the spade strength he should bid 3♣ with a maximum). Steven
  22. 3nt over 3♥ denies an ace but shows one or more kings. Over 3nt East will bid 4♣. If West now bids 4♦ it is clear that it is the king because aces were already denied. So getting to 6 is no problem. But getting to 7 only seems possible if you play something like the grand slam force... Steven
  23. I would have opened 1nt... Having opened 1♦ I would rebid 2nt or 3♥ if the minimum values for this negative double are around 10hcp. Steven
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