dboxley

1. North 100% South 0% 2: Pass

1D 1S 2N 3S 4C 4N RKC for Spades (5C or 5D)3KC next step Q ask SQ+DK 7NT This will miss some cold 7S when opener is off the CA but I don't have the tools to find out everything I need to know to bid that 7.

Does this mean that opener will automatically correct to 2/3NT with a doubleton spade? And is there any good reason why opener can't refuse the relay and bid 2S since the worst that can happen is a 43 fit rather than 2D? I am just trying to wrap my mind around XYZ and I see this as a real problem.

[hv=pc=n&s=skt2hk9832da3ck96&n=sq9864ha6dk954cq3&d=n&v=0&b=1&a=pp1hp1sp1np]266|200[/hv] Playing XYZ, and assuming the 1NT rebid instead of raise,how should the auction continue?

[hv=pc=n&s=st6542h4dj2caj752&n=sakq7hak632datct3]133|200[/hv] IMPS

If u decide to rkc then why would u ever sign off unless u r missing either 2 keys or 1 key and the trump Q?

I would open 1S but since I play both 2N and 3N are raises and a 2/1 implies 5+ card suit,the only option is a forcing 1NT response planning to catch up later. The bidding would go 1S - 1NT - 2NT (17-19) - 6NT. Why would you ever want to be in 7 even if N has the SJ?

Deleted

I believe at the table you might be required to actually state a line of play, at least where I come from.

[hv=pc=n&s=sj3hqtdaqjt2ca865&n=sak9hak43dk96ckjt&d=e&v=e&b=6&a=p1dp1hp2cp2sp3dp4np5sp7dppp]266|200|matchpoints don't comment on the bidding pls 2S=4SGF opening lead small diamond "Why not 7NT pd?"[/hv]

How about 5H?

Either bid could be wrong but this is so much better than a minimum 2D rebid that I would have to bid 3. As for lack of defense, who cares, we are not going to be defending.

My hand is good enough to raise clubs and then bid diamonds a couple of times. If the opponents bid major(s) at a high level I can bid NT at the appropriate level. A splinter does not show the main features of this hand, great club support and good diamonds.

Minors

I don't have any working values that partner couldn't find with rkc so I pass. WTP?

I play (and I think the majority play) small from 3 small in pd's unraised suit, top otherwise to avoid just this situation.

Reread the question

I have never played semi-forcing NT but my understanding is that opener can either treat it as forcing or pass if he/she "feels like it" (I'm sure someone will tell me if I'm wrong). If that is the case then it seems to me that you have to have another bid for this type of hand, it would be ludicrous to play this in 1NT. Also, I would like for someone to show me statistics to the effect that most people play semi-forcing NT.

This must be the Ostrich Convention :)

1. yes 2. strong hand, asking for further description, implies but does not promise ♠ support, denies requirements for a splinter (shortness and 4+ trumps) 3. 2♠. Although this doesn't specifically ask for a stopper, partner should show one if that is the most descriptive bid. Partner can also rebid ♥ with 5 or more, or lacking that, bid a new suit without a stop. 3♠ is the best bid.

Lead your small ♣ at trick two to see if W will fly. If not, play the J. Hopefully either the trumps split or E had a stiff (W would hardly lead a singleton trump). If everything goes right you will get 6 spades, 1 diamond ruff in dummy, 2 hearts and a club for a below avg board but not a bottom. It's also possible you could get a heart/club squeeze against W (or a double squeeze if they misdefend, just play it out and see what develops). Did W have a wire? Why didn't he lead a diamond? Maybe Axx or AJx, but still...

Does that make it an automatic jump rebid? Absurd... I can see maybe OPENING 3H and taking the chance of missing 3NT but I would never invite pd to try for a slam opposite this trash. What would you bid if you actually HAD a jump rebid?

You have this hand, partner has made a non-forcing raise, and you think you are being bounced out of 6H? I would check the backs of the cards before I made that assumption. I think rho is bidding for a make.

7♥, taking out insurance.