Chamaco

Ty Dwayne, can you suggest me where to lookup for Redwood ? (dunno what it is). ;)

Hi Mamo, I went to read the thread suggested by Ben, and - much to my surprise - I found nowhere in this list the book "Matchpoints" by Kit Woolsey. For myself (an intermediate), it has been by far the most illuminating book on hand evaluation (regardless of the form of scoring). Also, on squeezes, I found much better explained and organized than Love's book the book by Romanet on squeezes "Le squeeze au bridge", but this is easier to understand since european bridge literature is usually less well known than US books (less books are translated in english from non english languages than the number of US books imported in europe). ciao ! ;)

In the style of 2/1 I am playing (Lawrence / Gitelman), bidding 3♣ over pard's 2♥ shows extras, a hand near a reverse, either in hcp or distribution (say 5.5 losers). In the same style, rebidding the major after pard's 2/1 is NOT showing eextra length, but simply a waiting bid, say to pard: I cannot bid NT, and have not the requirements to bid a new suit at the 3 level . So 2 spades was the only bid left.... :(

One hand from a team match yesterday on BBO. We lost 11 imps for not bidding this slam, which was bid at the other table (I ignore the sequence they used). Slam was made on a 2-2 trump split. [hv=d=n&v=e&n=sat643h85dj8cak97&s=shajt6432daktct53]133|200|Scoring: IMP[/hv] At out table bidding went: 1♠:2♥*:2♠:3♥:4♥ all pass. (* = game forcing) I was North (the 1S opener), but I recognize the difficulty of my pard to investigate slam given many club losers, possible trumps losers, and not unlikely wasted values in spades from opener. How would you bid the hand ? Would you stretch for slam ?

1) As we are in a GF auction, pass is forcing. 2) Double is always for penalties--with a takeout double type hand, we pass. 3) New suit would be a decent 5 card or longer suit. 4) Jump shift could be an asking bid if you use it that way without intervention. Might be used to show a solid suit and some slam interest. 5) Cuebid is probably best used to show a two-suiter a la Michaels. 6) Jump cue (if below 3N), a command to partner to bid 3N with a stopper. 7) It's playable, but you may want to make some changes over higher level intervention. 8) See #2. 1) pass - FORCING This is straightforward, and even myself could figure that :angry: But is it forcing in which way ? - minimum hand or may be 19+ ? - always balanced or can be unbalanced ? - does it suggest or reject penalty (linked to 2) ? 2) double - PENALTY Simple enough, but I have some uncertainties on the suggestion that with a T/o type hand we pass. Se doubts in other points. 3) new suit= a decent 5 card or longer suit. This is also strightforward, but which strength does it imply ? Does new suit show only shape or hcp range ? The difference between new suit immediately and PASS(for takeout as u suggested)+ new suit at later round ? Thanks !! :angry:

Hi Ben, similarly to the point you raise, I have a question on the sequence: 1♣ - (Pass) - 1♥/1♠/2♣/2♦ - (bid) ? So basically the question is: after responder to the big club has made a positive response and RHO bids, what should these mean ? 1) pass 2) double 3) new suit 4) jump shift 5) cuebid 6) jump cue 7) I assume raise/jump raise has the same meaning as without intervention, e.g. simple raise may be a TAB in Wei's Precison. Is that right ? 8) I also assume that after a 1NT bid by responder (assuming 1NT is natural balanced 8+, an ugly treatment I know, but let's not start the discussion on this point )- as opposed to a positive SUIT response - double would be penalty. Is that right ? Thanks ! B)

1) 2S: reject hearts, pard did not double for siamonds, so choice betweem clubs and spades. At MP clubs may blow a trick or gain a tempo, spades is less aggressive but still constructive. 2) it also depends on the methods opps use. Do they use preemptive raises ? If not, then RHO has at most 3 card support. Also, do we play responsive doubles a this level ? If we do, pard would double holding 4-4 in minors and a few hcp (8+). If we do not, pard's double would be penalty. In any case, I think pass is the percentage action. 3) pass 4) I hate when pard does not show support immediately and comes in at a later round of bidding leaving opps the room to exchange info. Here it costs them fining the heart fit at a comfortable level. If he has to bid spades, he'd better bid them right away. In any case, I pass, not enough defensive tricks nor offensive potential for any action. 5) to my standards, vuln vs not, 2 diams must promise a full opening hand not just 10 hcp with a 6 bagger. Pard has 6-4, if we defend we may score a spade, one diam if pard has the ace, and 1 heart. The club Q is suspect. In a 5 level cointract we probably lose no diamonds, no spades, a club and a heart. If we lose more, they have a laydown spede contract in any case. So I guess I just bid 5 hearts.

Ty all for the replies, maybe one day I'll invent a new dish clled "switcheroo pizza" or "switcheroo spaghetti". Bring a bottle of good red wine for that dinner ! :P

It is intuitive for me to think of LTTC as a sort of "4th suit forcing". It asks for something or shows something (extras or controls), according to situations.

Hi all, Having read Fred Gitelman's article on LTTC I liked it very much. I was wondering whether the same method canbe used for minors. My doubt arises from the following: in the style used by Gitelman, when a major fit is found, the step below 4 of the major is Last Train (LTTC), artificial, often says nothing about the suit just bid. However, to verify the coontrol is the LTTC suit, there is still available the bid of 5 of the major, which in Gitelman's framework is "Lackwood" = RKCB asking for keycards AND control in the LTTC suit. Instead, for minors, I cannot think of anything similar to "Lackwood", since there is no intermediate step between game and slam (such 5 of the major is for major suit slams). So I am puzzled to know if experts try to use LTTC in minor slams investigations, and how they substitute "Lackwood" in that case. If so, where can I find documentation ? Thanks ! :P

... from the Tiger of Mompracem.... ROARRR !!! :)

Thanks for your responses. I am not very experienced in general, but experience in playing vs psyches is even less, so comments were useful. Also, if I interpret correctly, there seems to be agreement on the fact that my double of 2 spades should be penalty and not takeout. Thanks again :unsure:

My source of tricks ? Well, not suspecting a psyche, I was not worried of MY source of tricks, but of THEIRS: pard has set a gam,e force, I am in misfit withg clubs, pard is in misfit with me in spades (not suspecting the psyche). Pard must have hearts, and they will have trouble to score tricks. if RHO has really spades, 3H doubled would be a slaughter :P Unfortunately, he did not... :P However, my point was: 1) the "standard" precision meaning of my double and of my pard in this specific sequence 2) strategy to uncover such psyches. BTW: what is a "Tasmanian asking bid" ? :)

Hi all, a hand from a swiss team tourney I played yesterday Playing Precision, I picked up, none vuln, the following hand IMPS, None vuln AQT862-Jx-AKx-K 1♣-(1♥)-2♣-2♠ ? 2♣ by my pard shows 8+ hcp and a 5+ card suit. Question 1 In this sequence, is X penalty or should I simply pass ? If the latter case was true, after pass-pass-pass- Double Is the double by pard penalty or takeout (I will tranform it anyway). Question 2 The complete bidding was 1♣-(1♥)-2♣-2♠ pass-pass-Double-3H Double-all pass I doubled because I was staring of an expected misfit hand (shortness in clubs, length in RHO suit) But after the lead, dummy came down with something like: xx- QT98x-xxx-xxx RHO had psyched spades, and while 3H was -2 doubled, we had 6 spades laydown with chances of 7. Which ois the best policy to get out of the ttraps set by a psyching opponent here ? Thanks !

X = bal 15-17 or 21+. Responder will stayman or xfer 2C = Landy (54/45/55 in majors) OR 4M + longer minor 2D = 18-20 bal OR single suiter (not a reverse). Responses in 2D "Multi" style. 2H/S= natural 5+M + side minor 2NT = minors 3X = single suiter, reverse (max 5 losers)

Sodoes that mean that the dealer changes ? And, if so, does it change only N-S or rotates including opps side ?

Hi all, I am helping translating the BBO "thingies" in italian, but there is one term I totally ignore: it is "switcheroo" and it appears in the "Partnership bidding" section. I'll be grateful to anyone that will explain to me what that means and which is its functionality in the Pship bidding room (so I can translate it in the best way). Thanks !! B)

Sure, I think everyone has agreements. My question is on what is supposed to be as "standard" for occasional partnerships e.g. what should I assume having just "agreed Texas" but did not iscuss all sequences. Obviously in a usual partnership, I suppose one is free to modify meanings to their own tastes B)

I thought that this sequence : 1NT:4♥:4♠:4NT would be Ace asking with 6 trumps. Instead 1NT:2♥:2♠:4NT would be quantitative and 1NT:2♥:2♠:4C would be Gerber ace asking with only 5 card major, unsuited for Texas (if that makes sense at all) ;) .

In "standard", I believe 4C is Gerber, ace asking. I think the Nt bidder should know for sure whether an eventual cue is honor or shortness, in order to upgrade/downgrade his hand on the basis of "wasted" honors (opposite shortness) or superfit. Generic cuebid is nor something appealing to me until the hand has been descripted better ;)

I like to think of "suit quality" for side suit FJS as a suit that has max one loser provided pard can contribute at least a doubleton with one of the top 5 honors. So QJTxx is ok for my requirements.

Thx G, so that is the treatment I wa aware of. 1NT-(overcall)-4D/4H is still texas provided 4D/4H is a jump bid. ;)

Once a similar accident occurred to me playing in an game on BBO. My occasional pard was "advanced", and we both had agreed on playing regular Texas. However, bidding went something like 1NT-(2C)-4D and, thinking Texas off in competition, I raised to 5D. My pard was rather furious and explained to me (besides advices on which kind of game would be best suitable for me) that it is Standard to play Texas on IF IT IS A JUMP. [bTW- A similar misunderstanding occurred to me today- Free was kibitzing, but this time I was the 4D bidder in competition, my pard raised me to an excellent 5D in a 3-2 fit ;) ]. Now I am curious on whether it is correct to assume that *if Texas is agreed*, it is standard to treat it regardless of opps overcall provided it's a jumpbid. Thanks ! :P Mauro

Hi all, I finally managed to study Fred's 2/1 article located at http://www.bridgebase.com/articles/fg/2over1.html and I loved the articles!! However, I am trying to get the full picture and to deal with details of this system. In particular, I'd like to understand better some points of slam cuebidding once a major fit has been found. The system uses (see article to the link for further details): - serious 3NT - Last Train to Clasrksville - Lackwood - cuebidding of own suit to show 2 top honors - cuebidding of pard suit to show 1 top honor (may ne the Q) - cuebids in unbid suits are "mixed" (1st/2nd round controls) - new suit at 5 level is Exclusion RKCBm, so no cuebids are available at the 5 level. In particular I am curious about the latter point: I wonder whether eliminating the possibility to show total control in a suit (by repeating the cue at level 5) may lead to some missed grands (especially since cues are of the mixed type). Thanks to anyone who will reply !! :)

Thanks Ron, but I would like to understand the underlying reasons for me to choose pass rather than double, and, similarly, the thought process my pard should follow if I double or pass. Thanks !! ;)