bucky

On perfect defense, declarer shouldn't score ♣J. N-S can make slam in clubs. :D

Actually, I have a hard time constructing a hand consistent with 4♦ bid. Axx, Qx, AKxxx, Qxx bid 3♠ KQx, Qx, AKxxx, Qxx bid 3♠ Jxx, Qx, AKxxx, KQx bid 4♣ QJx, Qx, AKxx, Kxxx bid 3NT So maybe 4♦ can only be based on something like Kxx, Qx, AKxxx, QJx The soft values on side suits argue for 3NT, but the diamond support is too excellent to suppress.

I thought in 2/1 context, there was a perfect bid with random crappy 12 counts: 1NT forcing followed by 2NT alike.

Yes, but if declarer had singleton ♦K instead, it would be 6SX +1 when you could take two red aces at the beginning (plus a ruff). But then we probably wouldn't hear the story. :D

What's wrong with PASS?

Well, I think "reverse promising a 3rd bid" is a result of treatment rather than dictated by logic. The opener should be prepared to play at 3-level in either of his suits, but that doesn't mean the same has to apply in responder's suit. There are lots of merits to play 2♠ forcing at least one round (I play that), it is this treatment that makes "reverse promising a 3rd bid". But I also think 2♠ non-forcing (i.e. passable) is playable, by partnership agreement. Of course opener doesn't HAVE to pass with extra value/shape.

Please note that LHO has at least THREE spades: ruffed once and followed trump suit twice.

I think a related question is: with spade control (perhaps should be SA and not SK), wouldn't partner bid 3♠ first, implying a diamond fit? If that is the case, then 4♦ implies good trumps (AKxx or AKxxx) but soft value on unbid suits. Do I still want to be in slam with no spade control? If 3♠ can be natural 5-card spade suit (a playable agreement), then 4♦ hasn't denied SA, so 5♣ now is mandatory.

Of course it is not slam invitation (yet), it is aimed at reaching best game. Otherwise how do you bid with random 5-4 game hand?

I would totally agree: when the partner of preemptive bidder hasn't passed, forcing pass doesn't automatically apply.

Yes, it doesn't work well when the person in 3rd seat decides to open 3♣ with some 18 counts...

I think in terms of percentage, forcing pass makes sense in this auction: 1st hand passes, 3rd hand preempts, how often can they make game (and in the rare case that they do make, we don't have a good sac or game our way)? That being said, I don't think it can be assumed, this is still an area of partnership agreement.

The double makes sense if pass would have been forcing.

I thought SAYC means Standard American Yellow Card, which is a fixed convention card. By specifying SAYC, you are referring to that specific card, which includes "modern" conventions like Jacoby 2NT, but also "stone-age" ones like 3NT opening shows 25-27 balanced. If you play anything that deviates from it (e.g. Gambling 3NT), it is SAYC + modification (which technically means non-SAYC).

How did you derive this? What is "13-1-3-1:13-6-1-1"? I can see "13-1-3-1" as "13 cards minus one H minus 3 S minus 1D", but what is "13-6-1-1"? And why taking ♦ play into account is WRONG?

Exactly my point. With 5-card suit and non-minimum hand, why even bid 5D? Jumping to slam is much more straightforward.

Actually on BBO it is pretty common to respond with 1NT on north hand (on 1♣ opening by south). For some reason many people think they need FIVE card to respond 1-over-1 in a suit. And they sometimes win (like in this hand).

They want to play the hand. 95% of bridge players think they are better than their partners.

Was everyone at least in game?

Well, maybe it is an improvement to use "x" as an alias of "1"...

But it has nothing to do with hand evaluation. Whether you open 1♣ or 1NT, you will end up playing 3NT going down.

Aha, how cute! In that case: 1) Yes I agree with the simple 4H. Slam is possible but I need partner to have 2 aces plus picking up HQ. I am usually not that lucky. 2) I pass. I expect 5H to make, but now +800 is likely for us.

The hand is tailor-made for blackwood. Any bidding sequence employing blackwood/rkc should easily reach grand on this one, it doesn't matter you play SJS or not. It will be more interesting to ask: how do you reach grand if you don't play blackwood? :(

This is matter of style. If you routinely open 1NT with good 14 HCP hands, then this hand is too good for 1NT. If you never open 1NT with 14 count, then you can certainly consider 1NT here in MP.

No, I call director. Maybe the other 3 players have 14 cards each.