bucky

The answers to your two advanced questions are very simple: 1) As the rule of bridge is concerned, as long as you can take 13 tricks, you've made a grand. Plenty of grands are cold albeit missing one, two, or more kings. There are also plenty of hands where you have all aces and kings but cannot take 13 tricks. 2) Again, if you can count 13 tricks in a suit contract as well as in no-trump, try 7NT. Even if it is not MP scoring, 7NT is the safest if you have 13 tricks from top. I know you didn't ask, but there can be more interesting discussion on the earlier bids. I think 2♣ is terrible, 4NT is questionable at best (sorry for being frank).

Well, I don't know there is any principle at BBO, other than "no to assume anything". If you are playing with a random pick-up partner, bidding to 6♠ is really expected. Without good agreement, it is impossible to bid well.

Don't you prefer 2NT instead of 3♠?

Easily? Besides what is "good", AQxxx would be a terrible slam. It's not like he needs AKQJxx. Wow, what does South have? AQxxx in spades and AKQJ in hearts? Note that North already showed minimum hand (by bidding 2♠ only) and South still made slam try. I don't see how he can do that without excellent trumps. AQxxxx will be minimum, and if he only has that, we shouldn't have any other losers. I didn't say North must insist on slam, but only 4♠ is too timid.

I disagree that Roger doesn't deserve any support, since I agree with the ♣A lead.

Thanks for the entertainment. I really enjoyed watching the roller coaster, although I don't fancy riding one myself.

What do you mean "bad experience"? The bidding was near perfect, 4♠ is a fair contract (doesn't make though), and on cards lie N-S can nearly make 4♣. Which part is "bad"?

North is looking at controls in both minors, and South has made a slam try. How can South not have good spade suit?

Does 1♦ - 1♠ - 2♣ tend to show an unbalanced hand? The earlier sequence may not be optimal, but the worst bid has to be the final 4♠. Partner made slam try in spades and showed ♥A, North is looking at AK and A in the minors with heart shortness. If I have to choose only ONE bid after which our partnership is barred from further bidding, I would say 6♠ but worry about missing grand.

If declarer pitches a diamond on 6th H, north also pitches. Then declarer has only trumps left. On the next trick, virtually any card from South hand would work, as long as north returns a diamond for south to ruff with ♣Q for uppercut. The trump spot cards 8 and 9 in south hand are useful after all!

Can certainly double if opponents bid to 4♥. But bidding 5♦ ("after opponents find their 10 card heart fit") is bad move. For starter, from the bidding you can never be sure of the 10-card fit...

This is a very small target to shoot for. Even then, partner doesn't have to have both AK of diamonds...

BTW I disagree with pass. I would raise to 4♦ (NOT invitational).

Not too easy, but with right timing North can reduce trumps to avoid the endplay. ♠K, ♥A, ♥ to K, ♥J forces ♥Q, ruffed by North. Then ♠Q, South overtakes with ♠A, cash 2 more hearts, play last heart, ruffed by declarer and over-ruffed by North. At this point North has 3 trumps and two diamond left, declarer has 4 trumps and a diamond remaining, South has the original 3 trumps. Only then North plays diamond, ruffed by South. Now spade exit, ruffed, over-ruffed, then north play the last diamond, South ruffing with ♣Q, declarer's ♣J AND ♣7 go to bed.

What would be required to make 5♦? Don't tell me in the number of HCPs.

Well - since you are the first and only contributor you might as well take the acclaim. I did indeed lead the J of Spades and dummy hit with this: Kxx JTx xxx Kxxx Partner encourages (small) as declarer wins with Q and advances Q of clubs. You naturally take this and continue with 9 of spades. Partner rapidly takes 4 spades tricks (ATxxx) and, after some thought (with you signalling count and (painlessly) throwing 3 of your 4 hearts - plays a diamond (Kxxx) - you wrap up 4 Spades, 4 Diamonds and the 2 aces for 2200 and 19 imps. As it happens there's no losing decision - declarer is one off at best on the wrong lead against our making 2D contract! The success is due to two highly doubtful actions: one by your side and one by LHO (combined with opening 1NT with junky ♠Q/♥KQ/♦Q/♣QJ). That results in a high-stake contract with random winning side. The dice fell in your favor this time, congratulations on emerging as the winner.

Definitely. Against weak NT, overcall needs to be sound, whichever method you choose. This is doubtful overcall against strong NT, let alone weak.

I think you are confused with 4sf in reverse sequence. In a normal sequence, repeating your own suit at minimum level wouldn't be forcing, so with 5+ in the suit and GF value you often need 4sf. In reverse sequence if you can repeat the suit without fear of getting passed out, your 4sf should DENY 5+ in the suit.

Doesn't seem like a misclick, since he deliberately added void points to make it opening strength.

To keep discouraging partner since he was ashamed of the opening... But why did he choose to open 4-card diamonds instead of 6-card clubs, that is still a mystery... or at least he can bid his 6-bagger at some point of time...

I would not consider PASS or 2♥. I think OP ought to offer the choice of 3♥ in the poll. In any case I think 1♥ is a standout.

I disagree on the 2nd half of #1. Even if partner is unpassed hand, I see no alternative call to 4♥. If I double first, I may not be well placed. Say partner bids 3♠. Now 4♥ by me doesn't show 8-card suit, instead it shows a strong flexible hand, typical shapes are 3541 / 3532 / 3631 etc. I know 4♥ bid risks missing slam on some hands, but at least I'd get the strain right.

Why is 5♥ safe if partner has an ace? Don't you lose 2 tricks in side suits plus ♥Q?

Check my follow-up posts. I uncalled the director. :D

Maybe your partner didn't have his bid...