se12sam

Lead back the last spade?

I honestly think that if I ever held this hand, I would bid 4NT as ace - asking. I think some similar hand was discussed on www.stacyjacobs.com where an opening bid of 4NT as specific ace-asking was suggested (cardsharp will recall the actual link) On this deal, the 1♦ opening by RHO changes little for the pro's hand, as far as the principle behind 4NT is concerned. The pro's partner bids 5♦ with ♦A, 6♣ holding ♣A, 5NT in the unlikely event he holds both aces, and 5♣ with no aces. And the pro can place the contract.

I'm going to attempt something which is probably wrong altogether. So please bear with me. My (warped?) thought process begins with the comment from Justin. If partner does have such a hand, then the pro is left with something like ♠AKQJxxx ♥AKQx ♦x ♣x Would he (instead of doubling 1♦) try 4NT as Ace-ask? Is 4NT available with this meaning in such situations? If he was dealer, would you try 4NT ace asking as an opening (i.e. only interested in Aces)? After all, opposite an ace, the pro can have his slam and there is no other scientific way to check this In addition to ♠xx ♥x ♦AKQTxxx ♣Axx as suggested by Justin, these are also possible hands for partner: 1. ♠Ax ♥x ♦AKQTxxx ♣Jxx 2. ♠xx ♥A ♦AKQTxxx ♣Jxx I think there are more hands where declarer will make <11 tricks (given that he never tried for slam) than where he has a cold 11 tricks. Justin's probably spot on with his suggested action -- Pass. And lead a heart?

You are correct. Let me suggest an improvement to my original line. Cash one club (underlead to K by West) and switch to diamond. Does it work?

If West is on lead, he has to underlead his ace! If East is on lead, he starts with the King of clubs. East wins King and Queen of clubs, then switches to a low diamond. West covers south's diamond. This should now beat the contract. 1. South cannot finesse in trumps because he has four losers. 2. So he starts hearts and discards a diamond and a club. 3. Having rid himself of diamonds, he finesses in spades. West wins and returns a second diamond! 4. If South ruffs and runs trumps, he loses the CJ in the end, but if he ruffs it in dummy West's S8 is promoted when any card is next played from North.

3NT. Why not?

I usually do not post in this area! But here is something I found a while ago. http://hsgac.senate.gov/public/_files/012809Tellis.pdf The person speaking to the Senate committee may have interests / influences that affect some of his statements. However, many of his points are legitimate. The radical elements in the region have "...long engaged in a variety of subversive activities aimed at attacking American interests" I don't think India is the only country that has to worry about Pakistan's nukes.

In England, the Lederer Memorial trophy is played in a similar way. Twelve boards per round, with 60 points available in each match. - 36 points come off IMPs being converted to VP scale - 24 points on a "BAM style" -- 2 for a win, 1 for a tie and zero for a loss. However, at Lederer, a 10 point difference counts as a tie. In essence, the "BAM style" is 2 for winning IMPs on a board, 1 for a push board and zero for losing IMPs on a board

I suppose your LHO bid 5♥. In that case, I'd choose to pass. Odds favor opps having a slam. If I bid again, they might find it....

When partner passed my 1♦, he basically has no interest in majors or no HCP (many will respond 1♠ with even 3-4 HCP and 4-card suit). If I were North, I'd make the 2♦ raise with many different types of hands. It's meant to be more of a nuisance bid (even if it causes very little obstruction). I'd say it normally should show 12-15 HCP and 5+♦ 4M (usually spade suit) or 12-16 with 6-card (but semi-balanced). IMO, most opps find it difficult to sit a 2♦ dbl (for penalty) barring a trump stack

I think the problem could also be a bare King of heart with West. If you play J (to finesse), you make only 3 heart tricks. So, I think the line should be diamond to Ace*, low heart to the Queen**, heart Ace (hope King falls), two hearts and then the end play in clubs. *If West is void in diamonds, we run HJ. ** If King pops up from West, you are home by cashing two diamonds, four hearts and then throwing West in with a club.

Dbl 2♦ to show penalty in hearts (I hope). This could help define the auction, if such an agreement already exists. As your side is in a forcing auction, partner should pass 2♥ to check if you are interested in doubling. Since partner did not offer you the choice to double 2♥, I'd guess a singleton heart and long + strong/semi-solid clubs -- handy in 1NTx but not so much in 2♥x A 3♠ bid might work if you think partner will not pass. But otherwise, I'll go for 3NT.

Good luck, both of you! One cannot withdraw the BB$s that are won on BBO, right? If yes, what do you do with the thousands of earned BB$s at the end of the exercise?

[hv=d=s&v=b&s=skh1042dqj962caj65]133|100|Scoring: IMP[/hv] Edit: You are South (dealer)

I'd go for Ogust (2NT). 1. In the unlikely event of partner bidding 3NT (AKQxxx in spade, nothing outside), I bid 4S. This should have decent play 2. If he bids "good hand, good suit" (3S), I'd pass (OR try for a thin game with a 4S bid) 3. If partner has a good hand, poor suit (3H), 3NT should have some play even with negligible contribution from the spade suit itself. 4. I'd pass 3D from partner ("poor hand, good suit") 5. Finally, I'd correct 3C to 3D The only problem is with the last sequence. If partner bids 3C, will he take my 3D as forcing? If yes, I'm stuck --- but when I used to play Ogust, I used to treat 3D/3H rebids by responder as "my suit, to play". With a scratch partner, this is the only part that would worry me and make me wonder whether I should pass

I pass. "Garbage Stayman" to pass any rebid from partner after my 2♣ springs to mind, but I think this works well only when responder has 0-3/bad 4 HCP. With the specific hand given, it is easier to pass and play.

[hv=d=s&v=b&n=sa975hdj86542caj8&s=sqj2ha76daq103c954]133|200|Scoring: XIMP[/hv] In the past, I never played inverted minors with my regular partner, but it is a necessity when playing online and with different partners. However, I am still uncomfortable and often mis-bid when I get the odd hand. The above 26-card layout was generated on RPBridge dealer in the process of testing out a bidding theory. How would you bid this one? I realise we have 10 missing heart cards and, in real life, opps will often interfere. But let's assume they are vul and they do not overcall... PS: I have read a few posts and a few blog entries on this topic. Please excuse me if this topic has already been addressed often.

Was 1♣ alerted ("2 cards possible")? If yes, the low spade is an action most will take. If opps are playing a "natural" bidding system, LHO has 5-4 in minors (more people open 1♦ with 4-4). In such a case, I may choose a low heart (reasoning that partner is more likely to have longer hearts than spades). But mostly, I think I will "go with the flow" and open with ♠6.

Isnt it simply cashing the top two cards in the suit? Wins when they are 3-3, 4-2 with a doubleton honor or 5-1 with a singleton honor.

1. 6NT -- If partner has 5-5 with good diamonds, good hearts and no club stoppers, I want to be declaring this one. 2. 4♥ 3. If 4♣ is Gerber, then is there a King asking continuation available? At IMPs, I might try to use one...

Sorry, I thought this was the abbreviation commonly used here for "Assign the blame" --- next time I will type in full.

[hv=d=w&v=b&n=skq5hj85d8732ca83&w=s4h63dqj1095cqj1064&e=sa1098732h742d6c97&s=sj6hakq109dak4ck52]399|300|Scoring: XIMP[/hv] This was the full hand. Perhaps I was wrong to assume South hand definitely deserved a raise to 4NT; the consensus opinion is to pass. I think 6NT will make in real life -- the hand records showed only 11 tricks double dummy; but that requires a club(!) opening lead from East + further good plays by East (ducking the first spade, winning the second and leading a second club) I thought at least one N/S pair will reach 6NT. But the traveller showed 0/18 in 6NT, 7/18 in 4♥, 9/18 in 3NT or 4NT and only 2/18 defending 3♠ dbl. Those who defended made the most cross-IMPs ATB anyone?

No, if RHO returns a heart you are forced to take a hook you really don't need. Maybe you should be more specific about what you hope to accomplish by exiting a club. Who is getting squoze? Any most importantly, why is this better than taking the straightforward line of spade hook, diamond hook? To have any hope, the ♠Q has to be with West. If I hook a spade and it loses, I will always be down. And if we start with that assumption, then there is no harm in Ken's line of play. If RHO wins the final club and leads a heart, you take the finesse! Even if it loses, you can make if the ♥10 falls on the third round.

[hv=d=w&v=b&s=sj6hakq109dak4ck52]133|100|Scoring: XIMP You hold this good hand in the 4th seat. The bidding goes: Pass - pass - 3♠ - dbl pass - 3NT - pass - ??? Would you bid on? If yes, what? [/hv]

I think this needs "table feel" to get the right answer Start with ♣A, then cash the ♦K. 1. Diamonds are 5-0. You need East to hold 5-card diamond AND 5-card heart. Plus you need ♠Q to fall doubleton. Follow up by cashing ♣K, ♠K, enter dummy with ♦Q and cash ♣Q, ♥A, ♠A (luck needed), and ♠J. On the last trick, East is squeezed in the red suits. 2. Diamonds are not 5-0 You need EITHER ♠Q to fall doubleton or the same person to hold 5-card hearts + 4 card spade. Follow up by cashing ♣K, enter dummy with ♦Q and cash ♣Q before entering hand back with diamonds. On the run of diamonds, you have a potential criss-cross squeeze if one player has both majors as above. But the problem is: How would I know which major suit will establish? Table feel? Guess? I dont know...