se12sam

Nice one. I think I'd get this wrong at the table (where I'd play approx the line suggested by Vuroth) My (properly thought out) play is (hidden)

3♥, showing half stopper?

Here is a table for Ken's card combination: 1. xxx vs. QT --- play J first finesse twice (3.39%) 2. QT vs. xxx --- cash AK (3.39%) 3. T vs. Qxxx --- play J first finesse twice (2.83%) 4. Tx vs. Qxx --- play J first then cash King if J covered (10.17%) 5. xx vs. QTx --- play J first finesse twice if J covered (10.17%) 6. Qx vs. Txx --- play as in 1 if LHO plays 10 (10.17%). #6 is a "Grosvenor". If RHO plays 10, odds say you still play him for Q. And if it loses to Qx, too bad. Don't let it rattle you. A. The best line is to run Jack from dummy (if not covered). Loses #2 but gains on 3, 4, 5. B. If it is covered, the theoretical odds are equal on 4. and 5. However, as some opps will freely cover with #5 but not so quickly with #4, you play for a second finesse. And a table for mtvesuvius's card combination: 11. Kxx vs. Tx - 10.17% 12. Kx vs. Txx - 10.17% 13. KT vs. xxx - 3.39% 14. K vs. Txxx - 2.83% 15. Kxxx vs. T - 2.83% Lead the J. If it wins, the theoretical odds are equal on 11. and 12. Against expert opps, it's a toss-up (probably playing low is better) but with non-experts, play Q to pin the 10 with RHO?

My main question (out of genuine desire to know) was "What are the forcing options available to advancer?" Most of you responded that 2♠ is NF in your system. [hv=d=w&v=n&n=sxxhxxxdajtcakqxx&w=stxxhakjxxdqxxcjx&e=skxxhqtxdxxxctxxx&s=saqjxxhxxdkxxxcxx]399|300|Scoring: IMP Advancer is South. Bidding so far: 1♥ - 2♣ - 2♥ - 2♠ Pass - ???[/hv] Obviously, the above is a construction and will not pop up frequently in real life. But most will open 1♥ with West cards (wtp?) and if I separately posted the East hand, most of us will raise to 2♥ (again a wtp?) But N/S are cold for 5♠ and can afford one more loser but still be in game. If you held the South hand, how do you bid it? To repeat my key concern, what are forcing options for South?

If I trust partner's bidding, the 4♠ bid shows a keen slam interest with spades stopped, running clubs and decent heart support. Partner has dragged us this far and he surely has a massive hand. The obvious thing partner seeks for a slam is a diamond control. As I do not have one, I bid 5♣ to play. I'd expect a dummy like: ♠A♥AKQx♦xx♣AKQJxx OR spade void instead and 7-card club

My choice of five pairs: #30. Hampson & Rodwell #3. Curtis Cheek & Joe Grue #22. Helgemo & Helness #26. John Diamond & Eric Greco #16. Roy Welland & Chris Willenken

OK. I can agree to this point, but opponents could have any limited hands with a 5-3 heart fit. Whereas partner could still be the one staring at a decent hand with a good spade suit etc. What are the forcing options available to advancer? Assume he has a biddable spade suit and does not have obvious double stoppers (AQx or KQx) in the opponents suit.

I play it as forcing. As I hold the ♦AJT over the 1♥ bidder, I may bid 3♥ as a trial for 3NT. If partner does not have a decent hand with a ♥stopper, he can stop in 3♠. At MPs, I'd probably not get too adventurous and would rebid my clubs.

[hv=d=n&v=n&s=s842h974dakj5cak10]133|100|Scoring: MP Expert opponents; Int/adv partner. You are West. Please assume the bidding system as a given. You play 4-card majors and 12-14 NT. Systemically, you cannot open 1NT with this hand. Bidding goes: (P) - P - (P) - 1D (1S) - 2H - (3S) - ??? [/hv]

Maybe I've misunderstood, but doesn't West just throw his last diamond? The defence comes down to ♠Q+♦A opposite ♠Jx. Yes, you are correct! Maybe it is better to play three rounds of hearts - instead of low to ♥K and low back to dummy, I play the other way round and end in hand + lead the third heart. West has to hold on to ♦A and dummy can discard the ♦7. - however the position now becomes subjective. East leads a low spade and I capture the Queen in dummy. If West started with QJxx, I should now play low to Ace (to drop the J). If West started with Q9xx, I should play the 10 to squash the 9. - I suppose the only guiding principle here is "restricted choice". But if we guess wrong, a score of 10 tricks will be a sure-fire bottom.

Based on the play, I'd trust LHO and duck the second diamond. If a third diamond is played, I will duck again and ruff in hand, draw trumps ending in dummy, play DK and discard a club and then play low heart to the King. This is (in my humble opinion) an easier line of play as it only needs the HA with East. And it is not impossible for East to hold the HA

Trick 1: ♣x - K - A - ♠x Trick 2: ♠A - x - x - x Trick 3: ♦x 1. If West ducks, I put up the Queen from dummy* and discard both diamonds on the ♣Q and ♣J. Now I will have time to ruff both the ♣x and the ♦x back to hand. This needs clubs to be 6-3 or 5-4 and trumps to be 3-1 or 2-2 2. If West puts up the Ace, I will have time to discard dummy's low heart on ♦K and ruff ♣x back in hand. In both cases, I can make 12 tricks by ruffing dummy's losers in hand with unbeatable trump cards. Will this work? * If the queen loses to East, I can play West for ♥KQ, ♦J and club length, and try some sort of squeeze (don't know how...)

Wayne, The analysis is brilliant. Thank you very much.

[hv=d=s&v=n&n=skt6hatd7c&w=sq9xhdat8c&e=sjxxhqjxdc&s=sa84hk84dc]399|300|Scoring: MP[/hv] You reach this position. Based on carding so far, it should be clear that West has spades and diamonds (because he threw his hearts away). Now play low to ♥K and low back to ♥A. 1. If West discards two diamonds, you throw him with the last diamond. This allows you to score 3 tricks when the spade honors are split and West has the ♠9 2. If West discards one diamond and one spade, play a low spade to ♠A in hand and exit with the heart. This loser card squeezes West again! What a delightful position! (provided I got it right :P )

I think the key card is the ♦7 in dummy. If LHO also has the ♦8 to go with his known Ace and 10, we can afford to discard all diamonds from hand. So, I'd win the first trick, play all clubs discarding two diamonds and a {EDIT: heart} from hand. From the discards on clubs it should become clear which opponent holds which major. Does that work?

1. Partner expects us to beat it and I have nothing to suggest otherwise. I Pass 2. This one is not so clear-cut. Unless dummy has something like ♠AJ10 or ♠KJ10, I am certain of making at least 1 spade trick + ♥A. Can partner produce 3 more tricks in defence? The opponents will most likely hold all of ♠AKJ. So, of the 26 remaining HCP, partner has at least 12 (probably more for his 3♦ bid). I'm itching to double here. But at IMPs, the risk in doubling is high unless I am confident of -1 and hopeful for -2. As -2 does not look likely (and I'm not 100% confident of -1 either), I reluctantly pass.

As I do not have a M+m type 2-level opening in my basic bidding system, I would pass this hand in the first and/or the second seat. Actually, I think I would pass even with the Jack of diamond. i.e. holding ♦KJT8x

I would have passed or bid 1NT(?) if I had xxx in spades (assuming a Q in some other suit) and a 9½ loser hand. But Qxx (or QTx in this case) is good enough support not to mislead partner. And as I would have treated this closer to a 9 loser hand, I will raise to 2♠

Tried kibitzing a random table from the list available using my Nokia E90 (from the UK). Works nicely... :) Any possibility of kibitzing specific tables? (e.g. a known friend is playing but there are no kibs at his table) Thanks

At our table, the bidding went: 1♦ - 1♠ 4♠ - all pass. The only reason for asking is that I saw one +980 on the traveler :) (alongside many +480s).

[hv=d=n&v=e&n=sakq6hqjdak8752ct&s=s97543ha64dcq9654]133|200|Scoring: XIMP[/hv] You have an interference-free auction. How would you bid the spade slam? At the table we reached 4♠ by South and made 12 tricks because trumps were 2-2. The heart king was offside but both minors broke 4-3. If you bid the slam, you are lucky that spades are 2-2 (making slam easy). However, even if they were 3-1, there should be good play for 12 tricks. Am I correct?

1. I guess East gave a count signal on the first club. In that case, how problematic is it for West to jettison the ♣Q on the third trick? I realise that the count signal does not eliminate a singleton with East and declarer can hold ♣AKJx but this is unlikely. If East does have a singleton club and ~10-11 HCP, he will act in the fourth seat (with DONT, CAPP etc -- your system for two suited hands) 2. If West allows East to win the third club, East will not find a need to cash out immediately and will continue with the ♠J. Or does it still not solve East's problem?

I have a cardinal rule specifically for 'real world' bridge that I have seen people of all levels (barring experts) violate often. My rule is "don't lose interest with poor hands". It's so easy that I confess I have broken it often. And I try hard nowadays not to lose interest. Examples: 1. I am dealt with a yarborough. Soon enough, I have mentally 'switched off' while defending. 2. I find myself as a defender, dealt with a hand with one Queen and no other honor card. By trick 4-5, declarer has finessed out my queen. This may be the normal line of play but when the queen drops, so does my interest level in the rest of the deal. The problem is not linked to poor card play per se. It's also to do with obvious body language. In my experience, whenever my partner or I have 'relaxed', the declarer's chances of finding the winning line (for his side) has gone up!

And then you lose 2 hearts... Once you reach this: [hv=n=sqxhxxdcxx&s=shd8xcaqxx]133|200|[/hv] You should think a bit more... Ruff a diamond, draw last outstanding trump and play off heart from dummy throwing club from hand. On the final heart throw a second club from hand and wait for the winning (for you) club switch.

I have a feeling partner has ♦KQJ (or KQJx). Otherwise, the King looks illogical as a play. It cannot be a singleton (makes declarer 6-5 in pointed suits?).