quiddity

I wonder if this is one of those times where we should bid stayman and then pass if we find a heart fit - we expect to outscore those who stop in 1NT and don't want to jeopardize it by trying for a close game.

I'm not sure how aggressive I should be when r/w. How would you bid these two hands? [hv=d=e&v=n&s=sahxxdtxxxxckqjt9]133|100|Scoring: IMP (1H) ?[/hv] [hv=d=e&v=n&s=sahxxdtxxxxckqjt9]133|100|Scoring: IMP (1H) ?[/hv]

1nt looks normal for the first bid. I didn't like 3nt initially because we have a really good hand for partner's clubs: 3 golden cards and nothing wasted opposite the void. He will never play us for such a hand if we bid 1n/3n, and if he has 16 points or so we could easily miss a club slam. But given that the opponents have both found a bid it seems more likely that he's in the 12-13 point range. 3nt looks like a better bet than 5C, so I'll bid it now.

I can see a couple of advantages for Texas. It's handy when you want to set trumps and keycard, and it's generally good to put the overcaller on lead.

Both forcing. If you start with 3♥ on the first one and pull 3NT to clubs, then you have shown a heart control.

Why wouldn't this be natural and forcing with short spades? Worried about the stopper for notrump, asking if we might be better off in hearts, etc..

I agree with the rest of the post, but I don't think I could bring myself to make a vul. 2S overcall on that hand/suit. Maybe I'm too conservative there.

[hv=d=n&v=n&n=skhkt43d72caq9852&s=saj7532h7daq6ct63]133|200|Scoring: IMP 1♣ 1♥ 1♠ 2♥[/hv] How would you bid these hands (assuming no further interference)? Does your answer change if the scoring is white/matchpoints or if the opps are vulnerable?

If I were going to roll the dice with 6C, I would only do it in a very strong field. Even a beginner can find a singleton heart lead on this auction, and most RHOs can see partner's high-low and subtract from 13.

Couldn't we have significant extras here? It seems like we could have a 20 point hand and partner has to cater for that and let us know that we're not off a keycard.

♥A and switch to ♠2. Hopefully declarer is 2137 with ♦Q and not 3127 with ♠K.

I would certainly pass partner's double - the hand is fine for defense and it sounds like partner has wasted junk in spades. Is the first pass forcing after partner bids 3NT? If so, what does it tend to suggest? Extra clubs? Heart tolerance? Bad hand for defense?

[hv=d=e&v=n&n=saq9762haj984dq3c&w=sjthk765da954ckq2&e=s53h3djt2cajt6543&s=sk84hqt2dk876c987]399|300|Scoring: IMP - -- 3♣ P P 3♥ P P P[/hv]

w/r I'd bid 2S over anything from RHO. Otherwise I'd overcall 1S. I recently read a comment from a good player (I think it was the "Gargoyle Blog") to the effect that if your entire hand is in a single suit and you fail to show it, bad things tend to happen.

nm, roger beat me to it. :) East really should have been able to count 12 tricks.

I haven't discussed this exact sequence but at the table I would treat it as non-forcing. I like the meta agreement that our side can get out in four of a minor if there is no fit.

oops, I just looked at the sayc booklet and I'm completely wrong. Thank goodness I never actually play sayc. It sounds like the 2H bid is invitational with a doubleton hearts, 3H is game forcing with 3-card support, and 4H is "who knows". With an invitational hand and 3-card support, responder makes an immediate limit raise.

5C is bad, but I think East should splinter.

Playing in a 7-card fit is rarely desirable - no-trump is often a better spot. The problem is that in your first sequence: 1♥ - 1♠ 2♦ - ?? 2NT would now be invitational. Thus with weaker hands responder has to "give preference" to 2H with only 2-card support so that opener, with 14 or 15 points, will pass. In the second sequence, responder has already announced at least invitational values with the 2♣ bid, so there is usually no need to play in a 7-card fit. Responder can just bid 2NT when he has only 2-card support for the major. Therefore, supporting opener's major on the second turn promises 3-card support. I think the "standard" meaning of 2♥ in that sequence is 3-card support, invitational or better. It is forcing, but if opener makes a weak followup like 2NT or 3♥, that can be passed. Not sure about 3♥. I would guess it means very good 3-card support and a slam-going hand. Please start cuebidding, partner. Also not sure about 4♥. Maybe it shows a "picture" bid, a minimum game-force with values only in clubs and hearts, and no controls or shortness in the other two suits.

I meant 3H as good hand.. I didn't want to settle for game. How do you bid this without any special gadgets? (pickup partner) what if you agreed lebensohl over weak 2? thanks. I think your partner should open 2NT instead of doubling. The guarded king of the preemptor's suit is a strong indicator for NT, and the terrible holding in the other major is another strong indicator. I don't see any reason for doubling. Likewise, after the cuebid is doubled, I think partner should bid 3NT. That cuebid is usually a stopper ask - the pass would tend to show doubt about the final contract, maybe a shaky stopper or maybe 4-cards in the other major. With this hand, there is no doubt. Given the actual bidding 6S seems like a reasonable shot.

I'm confused by the bidding. What was 3H? You never showed diamonds?

Obviously depends on what the double showed. If it showed 5+ balanced, I think you have to raise. You have 9 and they're all working.

How universal is this? My partner argues very strongly for natural here (if it can be natural, it is).

ok, it sounds unanimous. To me it feels right to pass initially to keep partner from getting too high in competition - maybe this is too cautious.

I think at mp, I'd just bid 1N/2N. Partner might be opening an 11-count here, and we're not getting any odds by playing in game. Plus the 2/1 will tend to mislead partner about the length/strength of the minor, and perhaps cause some misevaluation (maybe partner has a club stiff). Vul at imps I'd force to game. Still tempted to bid 1N/3N instead of 2C.