quiddity

vul? scoring?

pass

Why? Is it that partner is unlikely to have a 5-card minor, or do you prefer NT to the 8-card minor fit?

X

Partner is "supposed" to lead low from Kx here, isn't he?

I wouldn't rebid 3♥ with responder's hand; opener has denied a 4-card heart suit so what's the point? Ordinarily I would just bid 3NT with heart values here, but given the prime values and shortness in partner's second suit it might be better to rebid 3♦ in case partner can raise or show a 6-card spade suit. With the given hands and methods the bidding might go: 1♠ 2♦ 3♣ 3♦ 3♥ 3NT

Me too - this looks like a perfectly normal 10-11 with a mediocre club suit.

With 5-6 in the reds I would expect responder to bid diamonds, hearts, hearts.

I tried michaels and partner was doubled in 4S and went down 1. I know the bid tends to show more but I did not want to risk 3♣ when we could be making game opposite some very weak hands with spade support. Does the ogust bid suggest that 3♣ will not be passed out?

Sorry, the description of the methods was inadequate. 2♠ is artificial in the sense that it can be used as a convenient way to force to game (for example, with a raise of partner's minor), but opener tends to bid as though it shows spades. 2NT by opener shows a stopper in the unbid suit, 3♠ would tend to show 4-card spade support. On this hand I thought maybe it would be best to bid 2NT without a real stopper to show the balanced distribution and soft honors, but partner raised with Qx in clubs and it was not a success. I guess I'm just supposed to bid 3♦.

[hv=d=e&v=b&s=sqxxhqjdaktxxxcjt]133|100|Scoring: IMP P 1♦ P 1♥ P 2♦ P 2♠ P ? 2♠ is artificial and game forcing. [/hv] I'm never sure when it's right to bid NT without a real stopper in the unbid suit. Is there any good reason for bidding 2NT here?

[hv=d=w&v=n&s=skjxxxhxdxcaqt9xx]133|100|Scoring: IMP 2♥ P 2NT ? 2N = ogust ask[/hv] Is this hand good enough for a Michaels 4♣ or 4♥ bid? If not, how would you handle it?

If this is a mild slam try, I would try 5♣ and bid slam if partner can show a diamond control.

His actual example is not so good. I have never had opponents who bid so timidly. Both of them had a clearcut second bid. It's not realistic that we have this nice and quiet auction to 4♥ with twenty total tricks, lol. The point is not that it worked out for him in practice on that deal. The point is that Martin, who strikes me as a decent player, chooses to double with exactly that hand: a balanced 10-count with AKx in a suit that partner overcalled at the 2-level. And his argument makes a lot of sense: if the opponents continue to bid, partner will tend to do the right thing. He will defend with a balanced hand, which is what we want because we are balanced and have several defensive tricks.

Lefty's sequence is strange. Does it mean that he has a 7-card spade suit or a heart void? Does it suggest that they might be more likely than usual to save over 5♥?

For a second opinion on making a responsive double with exactly this hand type, see: http://thegargoylechronicles.blogspot.com/...0/board-19.html As for the OP, clearly you want to defend and the choice is between pass and double. You have 2 defensive tricks and partner overcalled 2D - he did not preempt - so there's a good chance we're beating this. There's also a decent chance that we can make 4D so I'm tempted to try a matchpoint double here. It also gives partner another chance to run if he has a second suit.

I would start 1H-1S; 3H and responder has a close-ish decision whether to try for slam with 4D. If he bids 4D I think opener definitely kicks it in with the ace of partner's suit, but with 12 points and no fit I would probably just bid 3NT (double stop in both unbid suits and it's matchpoints) and play there. I don't understand rebidding 2NT with opener's hand - KQJT-6th of a major, no tenaces, nothing in diamonds?

The decision of what to bid over 2♠ is a difficult one for me. What factors should sway me towards bidding 3♣ instead of making a negative double? Would you also bid 3♣ with 1426 (and the same honors)? 2416?

Responder has a game-force (2♣ was gf, wasn't it?) with at most QJ in diamonds, at most J in clubs, and a stiff/void in hearts. Doesn't he rate to have massive trump support?

Partner's jump is preemptive/offensive, we're r/w and have only 3-card support, and it's not even matchpoints. I would just pass and I don't think it's forcing. edit: after some thought I don't like this answer any more. I think double is right. I have 2 quick tricks and some quacks on the side and partner probably has some values for the r/w 4♠. If he has the right hand we might get this 2 or even 3. We might get the SA, two clubs, a club ruff, and a diamond for example.

I think a weak East will always cover here, or at least hitch.

I don't know. It does sound like it shows something extra, but on the other hand partner could just have a strong 4351 and 4H plays horribly.

How do you do this? Are you using the online vugraph viewer?

It doesn't seem right to hide such good trump support even when playing matchpoints. I want to raise diamonds, just not sure whether to bid 4♦ or 4♣. The cuebid shows something specific which might help partner pick the right contract, but it also overstates the hand; the ♥Q is possibly worthless. These raises do not preclude playing in NT for me - partner can bid 4NT to play if he has the right hand.

edit I thought I could guard against a 3-1 trump break if the ♥T falls by playing ♣K, ♣ruff high, but if south has the long trumps he can overruff, play a diamond to North, and ruff another club. Annoying hand.