quiddity

#1. If I had a penalty double of 1NT available, I'd use it. Unfortunately I use DONT here, so I have no idea what to bid. Maybe X followed by 2S, in the hope that partner might be able to dredge up a raise or bid a good heart suit over the double. #2. This is also a matter of agreement. I play that after the opponents run, the first double by our side is takeout. So here I would double and rebid spades.

In "Reese on Play", in Chapter 1 ('The Simple Probabilities'), Reese writes: "There is another factor to be considered. The further the play has advanced, the more likely are the even divisions. For example, if in the middle of the play a declarer with a combined seven cards in a suit plays two rounds, to which all follow, it is better than evens that the two outstanding cards will break 1-1; in other words a 3-3 break has become more likely than 4-2." How can this be right?

This is just silly. Their iPhones will be checked in at the booth, so how can you possibly expect them to receive your email?

I think if you want to play for 3-3 clubs with the 9 onside, you definitely want to lead the CT on the first round. Otherwise, West can hop with his honor and you won't be able to finesse on the second round. If West covers the T, you have the option of playing West for KQx (by ducking) or for K9x or Q9x (by winning the A and later leading to the 8). I don't know which is the percentage play, given West's double.

I play this as natural. There are several reasons: 1. As you said, major rules. 2. Who says 1H here is "mostly always a 5 card suit"? 3. You're more likely interested in playing a suit which has been bid in front of you, as opposed to one that was bid behind you. 4. 2♣ keeps the bidding lower. Maybe the opps will let you play in 2♦.

Because going down 1 in 4H (140 - (-50)) is almost as costly as missing the non-vulnerable game (420-170)? That's 5 imps vs 6...

There's a great Larry Cohen article about partnership style which touches on this. He talks about how, in the early days of his partnership with (I think) David Berkowitz, his partner would often make damaging ("PIERCING STABBING") leads in response to his signals. Cohen definitely prefers the "showing" signal style. > - Playing standard signals, what would you discard and why? I don't know if there's a right answer. Ordinarily I'd be afraid that partner started with ♥Jx, but this declarer doesn't seem likely to hide the deuce, so it's probably all right to discard the two hearts. Partner's middle-down-up diamond play suggests some ambivalence so I suspect he has the K or Q of spades and the A or K of clubs. If he's 4252, we probably want him to return a spade; if he's 3253 we want a club. By not discarding from either suit we leave the decision up to him. If I were a better player, I could probably draw some inferences from declarer's discards as well... > - Does playing a high club demand a club return? Does playing a small club deny the Queen? I think a club discard (whether high or low) just indicates that you can spare a club. If you had the type of suit of club suit to demand a lead, you wouldn't be discarding them.

Agreed. I enjoy BM2K, but it has no matchpoint scoring and no defensive problems. LMP fills that void to some extent. I prefer BM2K's presentation to LMP's though (which asks you only at critical moments to choose a card to play).

With the given South hand, maybe it's better to just rebid 2H. Partner will let you know on the next bid if you have a black-suit fit. Asking North to rebid 2NT with his good 6-card diamond suit and singleton heart seems strange - why not 3D? I would tend to play 3C as 4th suit, possibly artificial, and for the second hand the road to 6C (if one exists) would start with 1H-2D; 2H-3C. Jlol, is this particular auction special or do you play all 4th suit bids in 2/1 auctions as natural?

A couple of posts recommend cue-bidding the CK at the 5-level. What kind of agreements do people have about cuebidding a second-round control at a level past game? Is it ok here because opener is clearly only worried about clubs? Is it the positional aspect of the stopper? (For example, if it were opener's hearts would you consider cuebidding the CK?) Does the cuebid tend to promise some extra values or is it "forced"?

If West should always duck the first round in this situation, it seems to follow that if he plays the Q, declarer should always go up with the ace on the second round (playing him for KQ tight). But if declarer will always go up with the ace, then West should occasionally play the Q... In a strong game, will expert Wests tend to randomize their play here, or will they always tend to duck and just give up on KQ-tight? Or should East always save him the trouble by going up with the K on the first round (and if so, is he in turn giving up on some other holding)?

LOL! If hearts are 4-1, I can't draw a third round of trumps after ruffing a club because West will win the round and force me with another club. Is there anything better than taking the same line and relying on the club finesse if hearts are 4-1?

I'll try:

The title makes it sound like there's an obvious solution, but I don't see it. I was considering running the CQ first, then low club to the T. If West hops, I can win the ace, discard the CJ on a high diamond and hope to endplay West into leading a minor suit if he started with something like Qxxx x Axxx Kxxx. But that seems really unlikely given the bidding and the opening lead. Or I could try a similar endplay against east, playing for East to have overcalled with x KQTx Axxx xxxx: HA, D->K, run the CQ, C6 to the K and A, SA, DQ discarding the CJ etc. Or I can play for the CK to drop doubleton. Or I can play for West to make a mistake.

I don't understand this at all. I passed 1H because I have 7 hcp, and I agree that partner can figure this out, but I don't see why it should suggest anything about whether I have 3 or 4 spades. As for 3-4-3-3, I can't imagine signing up for the 3-level with 3-card support for partner's major. You'll be playing in the 3-3 spade fit. Worse, you might even end up in the 3-3 fit if partner has 3 good spades and 4 lousy clubs...

I'm not surprised that people prefer X (since I thought the choice between X and 2NT was close), but I am surprised to hear that 2NT is such a terrible bid. Is it mainly the increased risk of a huge disaster? I would have guessed that partner's most likely hand would include 3-4 mediocre spades and an 8+-card minor suit fit.

I would balance with 2NT. Partner plays 'em well.

I thought 4C set clubs as trump, and that 4H showed two of the top three heart honors. Am I completely off-base?

Against truly weak opposition, 7♦ has another chance: if trumps break badly someone might double. :)

I often get mixed up in situations like this - I would have assumed that pulling 3nt after giving a preference would tend to be a cuebid in support of the preferenced suit. What would you expect for a 4D bid - 2-3 in the reds catering for a possible 5-5 in opener's hand? And how would you bid a more balanced hand with a better holding in diamonds and nothing outside - say JT9xxx ATx KQ xx?

Why 4C? Isn't the DQ a more useful card for partner?

Long or short? Why not medium?

Soloway jump shift? 1H-2S 2N-3N.

I'm surprised everyone is so bullish about this hand. The opps have a 10+ card heart fit with half the points, yet LHO couldn't find a bid over 1♦ and RHO couldn't bid over 3♣. I expect RHO has the hearts and LHO has the points, with length in spades and diamonds. If I bid on, I expect to play in a 5-2 spade fit or 6-2 diamond fit most of the time, with a minus score as a likely result if partner has the expected hand (a decent 6 card club suit and 3 hearts to an honor or two).