mohitz

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Hi, I am interested in knowing the correct procedure to be followed in the following situation. Sorry if it is too simple. Q1: What is the WBF alerting policy for NT openings? If i play a 12-14 NT, does it have to be alerted? Is an announcement required? If so, does failure to announce amount to misinformation? Q2: You are playing against a pair without screens. LHO opens 1N, no range is announced. Partner bids 2D. You have discussed to play Landy/Natural against a strong NT and Landy/Transfer against a weak one. From your prior experience playing against this pair, you know that they play a 12-14 NT. However, partner does not. The opponents have no convention cards(it is a club tournament and having a CC is not mandatory). So, it appears that partner has taken their NT range as strong and bid 2D as natural. However, if they are indeed playing 12-14, 2D would be transfer to hearts. What do you do in this situation? Do you alert 2D or not?

I voted for double. It seems to me that for 3N to be right, we need to have 9 top tricks else they will always be able to run spades. Double requires less from partner. I am not sure what I would do if partner bids 4 of a minor. :)

I don't understand the point of having #6 and #7. Whether to open these hands or not are clearly a partnership style thing. Sometimes, an opening will work and sometimes pass would be better. Why should what happened in only one deal have any effect on the score?

Full deal [hv=pc=n&s=sq8732h62dkt932c5&w=sa4hkt53da654ckj2&n=skj95ha4d7caq9876&e=st6hqj987dqj8ct43]399|300[/hv] EDIT: Don't ask me how the spots changed lol. Also, i think North has a clear call but still thought was interesting decision for South when North passes and was interested in what forumers would do.

Woolsey.

[hv=pc=n&s=sq8753h75dkt942c4&d=e&v=n&b=2&a=pp1np2dp2hpp]133|200[/hv] IMPs. Agree with pass over 2D? What now?

I played this hand! Was playing with a beginner friend who judged extremely well to bid 3♠ over which i bid a boring 6♠. :)

[hv=pc=n&s=sq95h962dqj54caj2&d=w&v=b&b=4&a=1c1h1s2hpp3c]133|200[/hv] What do you bid here? EDIT: Also, do you agree with the initial 2H?

yea, indians are smart! :)

And how do you know that?

Partner has AJTxx xxx AQTx x and 4S makes. I thought it was a pass too but a very good player said he would seriously consider balancing. So, just posted.

♠xxxx ♥- ♦Jxxx ♣KQJxx IMPs, vulnerable against not 4♥ - p - (p) - ?

It should. Android 2.2(Froyo) supports Adobe Flash 10.1. So, BBO web version should run on Froyo.

5♥.

X for sure. Could land us into some nice 4-3 spade fits. I used to play 2N in the following situations as Scrambling 1M - p - 2M - X p - 2N 1M - X - 2M - 2N But i was convinced by a player I respect to play the second one as good/bad.

1♦ - pass - 4♥ - 4♠ 5♣ - 5♠ - pass - pass 6♣ - pass - 6♦ - 6♠ pass - pass - double - all pass EDIT: Misread vulnerability.Thought EW NV. Same auction till 6♦, then all pass.

I usually pass these hands. Judging by the replies, perhaps i shouldn't.

yea, it was just a coincidence :)

where XX is penalty. What do you play here? What is pass and 2N?

We make 3N. Partner GIB has Jx of clubs, Qxxxx of diamonds and some 9-10 hcp and doesnt reopen. 3C is down 2 IIRC.

I will double. If partner bids 3D(showing values?), we can try 3N. If he bids 2N leb followed by 3D, i guess we pass reluctantly. If he bids some high number of diamonds, we can correct to clubs showing this sort of hand.

[hv=pc=n&s=sakt2h2dakt2cq932&d=e&v=e&b=6&a=3c]133|200[/hv] IMPs, opponents are GIBs. Would your answer change if partner was a passed hand?

I assume we are playing IMPs. I will return a low heart. Partner seems to have led from Txxx or Txxxx. If it is Txxx, she is unlikely to have Jxxx in hearts(he would have led hearts?). So, our best shot is either partner holding the Q or declarer with Qxx putting up low. If partner led from Txxxx, declarer has only QJ of spade and hence must have 3 hearts. So, playing low is clear.

Nice. I hadn't seen this before. Thanks for sharing.