Poky

I don't agree with 4♦, obviously. You would see 4♦ passed out too often (no matter what your agreement is or you think it is). Not to say that mathematics of the board and people tendencies suggest strongly that playing 4m as a constructive NF hand is a much better option in this position. Especially if the scoring is MP. Since there is no sensible way for bidding a slam, blasting 5♦ directly is my first option. But if I for some reason bid 4♦, double is the only reasonable option now. When somebody bids a NF bid on the 3rd level and thereafter a NF bid on the 5th level, you must always keep open the option to punish him (although this double is negative in my world).

Attitude has priority over count. If I play small this means - "I have a doubleton, give me a ruff". If I play high it means I don't want to ruff the 3rd round of the suit.

Obv not. UI case?

With 3(433) partner passes pretty much always, I would say, since his range is 0-4. No point in running into -800/-1100. Regarding the 4-5 hands, do you really think running out with, say, Txxx-Qxxxx-x-xxx is better than passing!? :blink: However, this cases are rare and do not change much the relations of percentages, maybe just a little bit the makeability of 4♠x.

Input: - RHO: 20-21 balanced - LHO: 6+♠, <8 HCP (no redouble) - partner: 4+♠ Output: - Game made on H6 lead: 53.20% (532 of 1000) - Game made on DJ lead: 51.20% (512 of 1000) - Game made on DA lead: 57.20% (572 of 1000) - Game made on C2 lead: 54.50% (545 of 1000) ♦J best as expected, but interesting to notice heart lead is better than club lead.

Delayed 3♥ it is not a pile of crap, North has an auto-raise. Game could be below 35% only if South is prone to make nonsense bids.

[hv=pc=n&s=s72hat85432da62c9&d=n&v=n&b=5&a=3cdp3sp4s]133|200|3S out of tempo[/hv] Is the double of 4♠ (by South) a "wild or gambling" action?

[hv=pc=n&s=sqt87hdkj8765cak2&d=n&v=0&b=1&a=p1h]133|200[/hv] IMP

Obvious pass. Would double rather than bid 3♣.

I would have liked the opening on the 1st position. On 2nd, it is very bad.

You say so. When Poku is playing a non-forcing NT that does only mean the 1NT response doesn't contain good hands with primary support - essentially being 5-10(maybe 11 with short M) without 3M. Wrong. I'm playing a plain 15-17 1NT. 14-(5332) and 17-(5332) are upgraded because of hand value, not because of the agreement. Wrong again. I'll open 1♥ always. And if opener rebids 1NT, with a decent hand I could easily rebid the minor fragment (intending to bid 3NT if that gets raised), regardless of meaning of the 1NT response. But this would be an exception (choosing the least evil), not a standard. I wouldn't be so sure. Having a clear range is very important. For example, having a 1♥ opener as 5+♥ is much better and robust than having a 1♥ opening as 5+♥/3433/44(32). And this is a very similar thing.

Interesting view. Lets hear another one: - semi-forcing 1NT is a response which sometimes allows you to play 1NT with 5-3 major fit when responder has invitational values and opener is minimal and balanced. - if opener is minimal and balanced that means he has 5M(332) with (11)12-13. - with 5M(332) and 14 he is too strong and has to do an upgrade (in order to avoid missing good games); therefore, he bids this hand like the same pattern with 1 point more -> most probably by opening 1NT (if Gazzilli is off); - as a conclusion: rebids of a new suit promise a real 4+ carder suit. Before hearing your opinion, I would be very surprised to know someone understands this differently. Probably you should give more credit to your experts because contaminating the range of the 2m rebid with 14-balanced hands sounds like something pretty unprofitable (what an aggressive 1NT opening isn't at all).

Negative doubles. Cuebids = forcing.

Play 1m-2M as 6M invitational and you won't have guessing problems.

4NT. If partner has some x-AJxxx-xx-AKxxx we should warn him slam is a bad idea.

Pass.

1. Pure SOS (although a very dangerous bid) 2. Penalty, inviting 4♠.

2♠ = doubleton spade 3♠ = three spades With 1453 rebid 3♥ or 2NT, depending on suit quality.

Pass. If 2♦ is a weak hand, won't be passed out. If I bid 4♠ now there's a possibility: a) I will be put into spade slam. b) I will propel them to a good diamond save. Besides, there's always a slight possibility 2♦ is GF and opponents forgot it (the only case when 2♦ could get passed out). However, no reason to anticipate the bidding. Bid 4♠ in the next round.

If you do not play Gazzilli, pass is obvious. If you miss a game, you have a problem with the system, not with the rebid.

[hv=pc=n&s=st974hkt4dt754c73&w=skqha86dkj96cj865&n=sj8hqj97532dqct92&e=sa6532hda832cakq4&d=e&v=b&b=10&a=1sp2c(GF%2C%20bal%20or%20clubs)3h4hp4sp5hp6cppp]399|300[/hv] IMP game, screens in use. 4♠ bid came after a break in tempo (opener described the BIT as 'tiny') 4♠ isn't a forward going bid and could theoretically include some crappy hands like Qxx-KQxx-KQx-xxx. If ever, under what definition of opener's 4♥ bid would you consider a pass of 4♠ to be a logical alternative for opener? Do you think a slow 4♠ bid could suggest opener's 5♥ over the passable 5♣ follow-up? Under what conditions would you consider NS appealing to be without a merit?

[hv=pc=n&s=skqha84dkj96cj863&d=n&v=n&b=5&a=1sp2c(GF)3h4hp]133|200[/hv]

1) 3♣ = natural invite 3♦ = artificial GF, asking for description 2) 2NT= 6♣4♦, decent hand 3) 2NT = natural invitational (since 2♥ was 7-11)

4♦ doesn't deny anything, just shows diamond fit. 4NT bid was bad.

Clear 1♠. Passing would be a crime. Points are 20-20, we have major suit(s).