flytoox

Thanks all. IN the field, about 60% bid 2c, and about 35% dbl, 5% choose pass. Pd holds: S: J98XXX H: KX D: KTX C: XX 4S IS an easy make. I overcalled 2c, but pd passed, maybe downvalued his hk for east opened 1h. So our talbe is the only one playng 2c:( 1N convention seems nice, so for the normal overcall nt hand, you will dbl and rebid nt? As for 1S overcall, I thought about it finally gave up. I actually think 1s is not that bad, coz KQTX is really very solid.

Sitting at south, you hold: S: KQTX H: AXX D: X C: AJTXX East opened with 1H as dealer, what do you do? 1) Dbl; Spade is shown, but if pd bid 2d, you are stuck; 2) 2C, you now risk spade fit. This hand is not too good, not too bad either. How to handle this kind hand? Many thanks. HOngjun

I like this interpretation, inquiry. This is the field where intermediate players lean most. It is different from textbook, which usually provide easy case to justify how good their sys are ;D But here we need to think, logically.

Thanks all for the great discussion from which i learn a lot. Does anyone want to discuss the advantage and disadvantages of Precision? I wonder if today's precision is much different from CCWei's style. I used to play precision. The problem with precision is that when Opp intrude and pd has a weak hand and your hand is not strong enough like 2c opening in standard. So in this case you will be in a bad position without showing your suit at the 1st round. Can anyone tell me what is the countermeasure over opp's intervene?

Thanks all very much.

Thanks very much, how to deal with weak hand with 6 card club suit then?

Actually, after pd's 1n, my 2s is not much of point either, I thought about 2N invitational, which i am sure will work better here. As for 1N opening, I prefer not do that. ;D

Sitting south, i hold S: QT87 H: AJ975 D: KQX C: A pd holds: S: J62 H: K8 D: 972 C: KJT83 auction goes: 1H-1N 2S-3C PASS(?) My question is if 3c is forcing or not? I thought pd has sth like: S: JX H: X D: JXXX C: KQXXXX so I passed. I think 3c here is no point, coz i either have to bid 3n, if not pass, or 4c, if i do have spt. It is very unlikely that we can have 6c. So i think if pd have about 8-10 HCP, he should bid 3n. Any comments? Thanks very much. HOngjun

thx very much. which is the more straightforward way? I mean when you play with random player.

A question I want to ask for long time. After pd open 1n, you hold a unbalanced hand, with a 4 card major and a 5 or longer minor suit, strong enough to game. After pd responded another major, which is usually the case, how do you exlpore with the possibility of minor slam? pd holds: S: AKTX H: KT D: ATXX C: KXX I holds: S: X H: AQXX D: KXX C: AQJTX AUCTION GOES: 1N-2C 2S-6N 7C IS COLD. HOW TO CONTINUE AFTER 2S? MANY THANKS. HONGJUN

I just read Robson/Segal's book. I think it is a great book, and I think 2s is acceptable, provided pd has some idea about this kind preemptive bid. But I'd be very cautious when playing with random pd. In the given hand, if you hold strong hand, then you should bid 2N first, right? here 2N is strong raise

1)MP: just play s 3-3, so cash one round s honour and play back to hand and finesee sq. 2)IMP: u should cashed sak, hoping dropping t9, or qx, or s 3-3,

Thanks very very much, Luis. Count me in and I will be a good student ;D cheers

hmm, seems i should learn Moscito, is it hard to learn? Much different from precision? Will it be a problem if Opp intervene?

I think pd is quite concerned with d. is it possible for him to find out or for me to tell him that i have doubleton dak? This is crucial for us to head off to 7s

N/S Vul, Delaer S North holds: S: AQXXX H: A D: XXX C: AKXX South holds : S: KJXX H: XXX D: AK C: QXXX 1C-1S 2S-3H 4S-5C 5D-6S I am south, thought 3h is short suit trial, so I leap to 4s, but pd turned out to have a strong hand, though we finally landed at 6s, but missed a grand. Question: (1)How to bid 7s? (2)I personally think 3h is sort of misleading, i would bid 4c, cuebid ace, even 3c showing the 2nd suit fit is better. Any comments? Thanks very much!

I'd not to learn this too sophisticated tool b4 I became a prof player:) I prefer natural and straightforward bidding, just like the Old man of Naples in David Bird's "All Hands On Deck" ;D

Playing with random but decent player(better than me:)), I holds: S: A H: AXX D: AKXX C: KTXXX Pd holds: S: X H: KXXXX D: QX C: AQJXX Pd opened 1H as dealer, the auction goes as follows: 1H-2C(1) 3C-3H 4H-4S(2) 5C-5D 5H-5N(3) 6C(?)-7C(??) (1) 2/1 GF (2) Cuebid (3) Grand H invitation (?) Denying two honors in H, but have extra strength in C(is my understanding right?) (??) Long tempo, then I bid 7c:( I know pd doesnt have hq, but hoping pd has sk, or hjt, or sq, and 12 tricks for sure, and perhaps we can find the 13th trick one way or other) But it turned out there is simply no play, so I claimed quickly down 1. POST-MORTEM: 6C IS A VERY NICE BID, shall i stop at it or change it to 6H? Any other way for further inquiry?

Suppse you opened 1x, and LHO dbled, pd rdbled, RHO might bid or pass, what should you do? Do you normally pass and wait? Or you just ignore it if you have some shape? IN particular, what will you do if: 1) What if RHO run 2) RHO pass? I met this problem today when playing with a random pd. I opened 1h with: S: AJXX H: AKTXX D: AX C: XX THE BID GOES: 1H-DBL-RDBL-1N(RUN TO MINOR)-? I passed, knowing pd will do sth. But strangly, all passed 1N, so op played 1n without dbl. In this sequence with the given hand, I have strong hand and good spade, which LHO is supposed to have by dbl. Shall I dbl RHO's 1N or wait to see the development? With random pd, I would say most players dont have much discussion about this kind situation. What is the default agreement then? Many thanks.

1d-1n is exactly what happened at table. I leap to 3n

if my hand is reall strong, then I think i will prefer reverse, but here my hand is: S: KXXX H: A D: KTXX C: AQXX which is somewhere between, reverse is slightly overbid, but 1d-1h-2c would be slightly underbid. Isnot it? Would you consider the vul when you consider the bidding strategy here?

my hand is: S: KXXX H: A D: KTXX C: AQXX open 1d, after very likely 1h, rebid 2c? or open 1c, after very likey 1h, reverse 2d?

With your partner's hand, I would pass 1S. But the question you asked is 8-10 or 6-8. This is an entirely different question. What do you think your partner should bid over 1D with? S-Qx H-Jxxx D-QT C-Qxxxx Should he pass? No. You think he should bid 1H. Now you bid 1S. Should he pass and let you play in a 4-2 fit? Should he bid 2D and risk another 4-2 fit? How about bidding 2CLubs which is forcing? Nope, too rich for my blood. That leaves him with one response... 1NT. So 1NT has to include the yucky hands with 4 hearts and no spade fit. What if partner held.... S-Qxx H-KJxx D-Qx C-Qxxxx Now the auction goes 1D-1H-1S... partner has the three card fit to an honor, but clearly pass is wrong this time. Here I would bid 1NT again. So, I am looking at 1NT showing between 6-10 points, because sadly, I see no other way to bid either of these misfit hands. If you open "sound" bids, you might make the jump to 2NT over 1S show 10-11 hcp, to narrow the meaning of the 1NT rebid.