Hanoi5

You have a 9-card fit but QTx in THEIR suit, if you adjust probably the law will tell you not to bid. Hearts are behind you also...

I just used the Zar points and it gave me 25, not enough to open, not enough to make a GF bid, right?

Yeah, well, it is the pecentage of the Deep Finesse analysis.

So you reach a game which makes 98% percent of the time with the hand partner's bid. 27% of the time you'd make 6, but if you RKCB you'll wager getting just to 5 which is just 78% makable. Would you use 4NT and risk losing that 20% or do you calmly pass and miss a slam which could be on in 27% of the cases partner has bid what he had? On the other hand, let's say those numbers were 90% (for making 4), 66% (for making 5) and 26% (for making 6). Do you take the same decision? Which one? Why? Why not? If you haven't understood my question yet, this is what happened: With hand A & B we got to 5 en route to 6 and went down 1. With hand B partner had stretched his values so he claimed I had stretched mine, so I ran 2 simulations: If holding hand A and partner has what he showed, out of 100 hands game is made in 98% of the cases, 5 in 78% and 6 in 27. If holding hand B and partner has what he showed, out of 100 hands game is made in 90% of the cases, 5 in 66% and 6 in 26%. So, who made the worst mistake?

I would have bid 4NT after Stayman's response, because: I have 16 HCP and a Ten (!) My HCP are really good (AK, A and AJ in a 4-card suit) Partner doesn't have 4 cards in hearts or spades, so he should take good care of clubs Partner will pass 4NT if he doesn't consider slam to be a good proposition It's a 4432, not as square as 4333 Defensive errors are part of the game

I believe this hand calls for a 1NT response. Of course the partnership should have some way of reaching or hinting at slam after 1NT. (This hand grows greatly over a 2♥ or 3♣ rebid by openner, among others). After 1NT partner rebids 2♦. After 2♥ 3♦, I guess all will continue with 4♠, what would partner need in order to continue bidding looking for slam?

Evidently is TC.

♠9xx ♥AJTxx ♦x ♣KQxx Partner opens 1♠, you play 2/1. What's your plan?

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HOW DO I SHOOT WEB?

I was gonna ask what's wrong with double and then 3♥ but then I realized I might not get a chance to bid 3♥. 3♠ sounds reasonable, if partner shows a stopper or believes me to have two suits I'll just keep bidding hearts and he should get the picture.

I think you should try to get a new partner... In Nº 1, I'd open 1NT, too. Yes, it'll be better to open in 1m, but how am I gonna tell partner that I have a 16-count balanced? And THAT balanced... In Nº 2 the reason to bid 1♠ is that you have 4 and you don't have support for partner's Majors, what did he suggest? I do think, however that you should rebid 3NT over 2♥, unless your 2NT is forcing... In Nº 3 I sort of agree with your partner, although I would have rebid 1NT instead of 2♣ or 1♠ IF partner can use check-back to find out whether I had 4 spades (and/or 3 hearts). The reason for bidding 1NT is that I want to protect my red Kings, especially the ♦K. If we don't hide 4 spades, then 1♠ is clear.

I voted for Pass and unfortunately I must recognize that on some situations I would bid 1♠ (and I might even try 1♥!). If partner had opened 1♣ I'd be more prompt to bid but as I don't find the 1♦ contract to be that bad, and as I have the Majors passing doesn't seem SO bad.

So, no Russia in 2010? Dissapointing...

I voted for K/A, though I might do it with K/K. It depends on fillers and such. Also, do the opponents play one-under?

Why is it deadly? What's different from other flus? How do people die from it?

Let's say the bidding goes: 1♥-(2♣)-??? In standard 2♠ by partner shows 5 cards and at least 10 (11) HCP. It is forcing. If partner doubles, he's showing normally 10+ HCP and usually 4 spades. If partner bids spades after that double (1♥-2♣-X-P-2♦-P-2♠) he's showing some 6 spades and some 7-10 HCP (not forcing). When negative free bid is in use, how does it work? Is it better? Is there other way to play the previously mentioned situation?

♠A. Let declarer ruff and develop his tricks on his own.

I don't want to bid just 2♠. I might bid 2♣, expecting partner to bid anything and then take a better shot at finding the best level. 3♠ it's another possibility, though I should be stronger.

5♣

It depends on the style of partner's Landy. I think I'd give a try at game with 3♠, though it could turn out very wrong, for example if partner holds 4-4 in the Majors.

I cash my club and play ♦J. My partner needs a trump trick anyway,so I rather cash the club even though it might lead partner to think I have a singleton ♦.

I like the x to show spades and then showing diamonds if need be. 3♦ is my next choice, in case x doesn't show spades.

This was the way Berkowitz played it (sort of, he won the ♦K and played to the ♥A in order to finesse clubs). The real question is, why start with clubs and not spades?

I blame what I don't understand: