Apollo81

My understanding of RKC is that when ambiguous it is for the most recently bid suit.

My interpretation of the 3NT bid is that it does not create a forcing auction. Having said that, this is an obvious pass now since we have already shown defensive potential. The 3NT bid is an overbid on playing strength. Playing standard methods I would have bid 2♠ on the previous round. You could arguably make a mixed raise on this hand too if playing a method that allows that.

you just weren't born late enough in June =P

Also could make 2n "any weak JS", send the 13(45) invites thru 2c...2n, and then you also have the option to bid 2c...3x on an inv js hand if you're curious whether pard has 6 spades or 4 hearts

Fred, In my experience, AJx is a poor holding relative to its high card count. Do you agree with this? If so, do the tens and nines in this hand really not only make up for that, but push the hand's total playing value into the 15-17 range? Is this the sort of hand you would only open 1NT if playing 14+-17? Would you contend that most people (mostly referring to non experts) that play '15-17' are really playing 14-17 value wise?

FWIW (likely nothing), here are 16 random hands with this system, where opener was constrained to have 10-14 HCP with 5-6♠ and responder was constrained to have 0-13 HCP with 0-2♠: 1. Q10xxx Kxx xx AQJ - Jxxx ATxxxx xxx 1s-2c-2d-p 2. AKQTx QJT J xxxx xx Axxx xx AKxxx several possible sequences a. 1s-2c-2[d,s]-2n-? b. 1s-2h-? in a. opener could either bid 2d allowing a pass or choose to rebid the strong spades, after the 2n bid it's probably useful to have some agreements....maybe suits show shortness? opener could also bid 3h natural, having denied 4 already in b. opener's 3d is probably a superaccept, which he could bid. not sure what to do after that 3. KJ98xx Kxx Axx x x QJT9xxx KJx Ax 1s-3h-4h 4. KJ9xxx Axx x QJx T K9x QJxxx Kxxx 1s-2d-2s-p 5. ATxxx x Qxx KJxx xx K9xx AJT9x Tx 1s-2c-2d-p this lets responder play in 2M if opener is fitting and 2d otherwise 6. ATxxx QT9 Ax QT9 Qx Kxxxx T9xx Ax a. 1s-2c-2d-2h-p b. 1s-2d-2s?-p not sure which of these sequences is better; a. is lucky here but could land the partnership in a 5-1 fit; b. seems more normal but opener has no good rebid here; both a. and b. find 6-2 spade fits and 5-4 heart fits 7. AQT9x K9x Kxxx 9 xx xxx AT9x KTxx 1s-2d-p 8. AQTxx Axx x K9xx 9x Jxx Q9 AJTxxx 1s-2c-2d-3c-4c-p 9. AQTxx 9 9 ATxxxx xx Qxxx KJxx QJx 1s-2d-3c-p 10. J9xxx Qx KT KQTx T Kxxx AQ9xxx xx 1s-2c-2d-p 11. AKJxx QJ9xx xxx - Qx Kxx KQJxx Jxx 1s-2c-2h-2n-3h-4h 12. AQTxx x KQ9xx Jx x Q9xx ATxx KT9x 1s-2d-p 13. K9xxxx x A AJTxx AJ Q9x Txxx Kxxx 1s-2d-2s-3s-? presumably 4c is natural here; if opener bid that then the partnership might reach 5c rather than 4s (I think 6c is doubtful) 14. A9xxx xx AQTxx x xx AKTx J9x T9xx 1s-2d-p 15. AK9xx Q9xxx Qxx - Jx Jx Axx KQJxxx 1s-3c-? i dont have enough experience with IJS to state whether opener should pass or bid 3h 16. KQ9xx Axxx xx Kx xx xx A9xxx ATxx 1s-2d-2h-2s-p

I haven't read more than one or two of the previous posts; how about something like this after a 1♠ opening: 2♣: "i want to make a descriptive bid" i.e. like 1s-1n-2x-[2d, 2h, 2n, 3c, 3s] 2♦: "i would pass after 1s-1n-2d" i.e. diamond tolerance without long hearts 2♥: "i would pass after 1s-1n-2h" i.e. short in diam/spade without a long suit 2♠: regular single raise 2NT: 13(45) naturalish invite 3x: invitational jump shift 3♠: 4-card limit raise After the 2♣ response, opener would bid 2♥ or 2♠ naturally if possible or usually 2♦ otherwise. Then responder would show his hand similarly to after a forcing NT.

If the choice is between feeling like a little girl for only bidding 2♠, or crying like a little girl in 4♠x on a poor fit, sign me up for feeling like one. Change the pattern to 5314 and I would invite.

1. If you respond 1♠ then you usually will not be able to bid clubs later, so you should either pass or try to bid clubs weakly (usually 1NT followed by 3♣). If you play 2/1 and don't play invitational or weak jump shifts then this is a very wide ranging sequence. In such a scenario, I would pass the opening bid. If I was playing weak or invitational jump shifts then I would take whatever path leads to a weak 3♣ bid. 2. Here you could choose either to bid 1NT then diamonds or 1♠ then correct clubs to hearts. The second path is available because your hand is better and your singleton is a top honor. I would probably choose the second path here, but I have no strong opinion.

I'd bid 5NT pick a slam if I knew partner would bid 6♣ with 4-3 or worse majors and 6♥ with 4-4 or better majors. If I trusted this to happen I'd do it, otherwise would bid 6♣.

2♥. I would trap pass if you moved a small heart to spades.

Well we are really stuck. A non-forcing pass would be perfect for this hand, but I don't think pass is non-forcing in this auction.

What was pard's hand? xxxx KJxx Jx xxx

you read the auction wrong. RHO is the one who bid clubs

I bid 4♠, which got doubled and went down 2 on a bad spade split.

Result: low club necessary to set/hold to 3 depending on what they do. Most other leads let them make 10 tricks. I led a high club. the club position was Kx on left, T9xx on right and partner has Jx hearts

Dude did you read the OP at all? Do you ask your opponents questions to which the answers are obvious or irrelevant every time you have a problem? I said RHO showed 15-17, whether the 2/1 was F1 or GF is irrelevant. Obviously RHO does not have any of these things when he bid 3NT. Whether 2♣ denied them or not is irrelevant.

Yes, exactly. What part of "2♦ would have shown 5+" was unclear?

Um, I have 1 club and 7 diamonds. Obvious pull.

Pass, I'd expect us to go down in 4 more often than make 5.

clear 3♥

3♠ because someone has to act and we have the void. I strongly dislike all other calls.

I'd pass. The minimum change would be to change it to (5422) somehow.

MPs ♠752 ♥Q72 ♦Q76 ♣QJ83 1♥-(pass)-2♣(1)-(pass) 2♥(2)-(pass)-3NT(3)-all pass (1) 2♦ would have shown 5+ (2) normally 6+ (3) 15-17 Your lead

♠KT73 ♥A5 ♦AKT853 ♣T unfav, MPs p-(2♥)-X-(p) 2♠-(p)-?