Apollo81

I would bid 4♦, asking partner to bid his suit (as opposed to 4♣, which asks him to transfer to his suit). Then I would bid 5♦ over the presumed 4♠ bid. Hopefully with the two black kings he'll bid a slam.

1. Normally I would just bid 3c, but if I was in an experimental mood (e.g. at the club) I would bid 2h. Partner's only going to pass with four of them, so if he bids 2s I can bid 3c safely knowing it's a real fit. The danger of doing this is that partner might raise to 3h 2. 3d, seems routine. 3. If this was a Standard auction then I would bid 5s, since with a better hand I would have made a positive response to 2c. In the actual auction it seems like I could still bid 3NT with an ill fitting 8 or 9 count, so I'm not sure whether I have the extras parnter needs. With just a King, I might not have cuebid, so I'd say I have a Queen extra. I suppose this is enough to bid 5s, but I am much less confident about it than I would normally be.

I would probably bid 1♠ IRL on the first hand, but I don't hate 2♣. Bidding 1♠ is only necessary if we have a spade fit and it's our hand. Bidding 2♣ could lose if this happens, but could also win in other cases (directs the right lead, partner able to jam the auction at next turn, etc).

Double then 3NT.

Partner had KQJ AK Ax AQJxxx, so 4NT is down on a spade lead if clubs are 4-1 or worse (not stiff K) and the diamonds don't work out. In 3NT, we can handle 4-1 clubs. At the table I chose 4♦, and ended up down in 4NT when the other table made 3NT. I assume the chance of this happening is less than the chance of reaching a good+making slam, but not sure.

Are they really going to bid 6♠? This is a much different auction than if responder had bid 3♥. Here, responder can't have substantial extra values.

You may be ethically constrained to not lead a diamond. Would partner be thinking with one small diamond? Two small? A low heart lead to get a diamond through looks normal to me.

Auction starts 2♣-2♦-2♥ (kokish)-2♠-2NT showing 25-26 balanced. You've got: ♠xx ♥J98x ♦KJxxx ♣xx You bid Stayman and partner bids 3♦. You can either bid 3NT or you can bid 4♦, which shows 5+♦ & a slam try. Over this partner will bid 4♥ if he does not like his hand and respond to RKC if he likes his hand, starting with 4♠. If partner does not like his hand, you can sign off in 4NT if you wish. Is this good enough to try for slam? If you said no, would you change your mind if partner had shown 25-27 balanced?

FAVORABLE sorry for leaving that out 2nd match of a Swiss, picked up 28 VPs in the first. ♠- ♥KQxxx ♦QJ ♣KQJ987 pass - (1♠) - 2♠ - (3♠) 5♥ - (5♠) - ???

I would bid a minor with 5-5 if my hand was very bad, and maybe also with 5-4 if the minor was relatively good and the hearts were xxxxx. I agree in principle that this is supposed to be 4-5. Otherwise I agree with Josh.

Exclusion.

If they make it's only -90, so bidding and going -100 is not an improvement. I would balance with a X if LHO had opened 2♥.

I suspect good raise in ♥ is the most useful meaning here, but I don't think you should assume that if it's undiscussed. I would tend to assume this is pass or correct.

My experience is that 1NT is not a great contract in this auction even when opener has no viable alternative to passing. 2♣ here is a no brainer, it could even be 3-4 tricks better than 1NT.

I'd pass initially, disregarding any value the ♣QT might have. If LHO raises clubs and it comes back to me, I would mentally thank him and bid 4♥. Hopefully LHO is not a tricky player, raising on a doubleton club.

The only reasonable auctions are opening 1NT and rebidding 2♣ (regardless of which minor you open in your style). The hand is not close to a reverse, and raising partner's major is just silly.

I would bid 6♠ with either 9310 or 9301.

If you play 5-card majors after 1♣-1♦ then you will find 5-3 fits immediately, 4-4 fits on the next round, and you might miss a 5-3 heart fit when opener is 5+♠/3♥ and the partnership has limited values. If you play 4-card majors then you will find your 5-3 and 4-4 fits, but you will also play some 4-3 fits. Really your question has nothing to do with Precision, the same answer applies to Standard bidding.

I play something that I think qualifies as Meckwell style Precision after 1♣-1♦, let me try to answer your questions. I would bid 3♦ here which shows a GF with 5+♦ and doesn't promise 5+♥. I play that 1NT by opener here shows 5+♥ and is F1, but I don't know if that is what Meckwell play. Various things can happen over this, one of which is a 3NT bid by responder and a 4♠ bid by opener. After that responder can bid the slam. I play that 2NT here is a near-GF with 5+♠/4+m (can stop in 3♠ if responder bids that immediately) and that 3m is a GF with 4+♠/5+m.

If I do anything other than pass, odds are partner's going to become declarer - the one thing I don't want.

I'm definitely opening 2♦. Give me better spots and I'm tempted to open 3.

IMO North is wrong. There's no way I'm bidding 4♠ with that South hand once North bids 4♥.

All of the bids up to/including 4♠ seem pretty obvious. I agree with responder not passing at this point but I'm not sure whether I'd bid 5♣ or 5♥. I would have bid 5♠ over 5♣ with opener's hand. Having already bid 5♦, opener has an obvious 5♠ bid over 5♥.

Phil and gnasher's views both have merit, but I'll have to side with the 1♥ bidders on this one. We are just going to get nailed so frequently missing the J and 9 along with the high ones that it isn't worth the preemptive effect. If my hearts were ♥JT98xx then 2♥ is the right call: we probably won't suffer a huge number even if one opponent has Hx and the other HHxx.

I was faced with a similar auction last night and I competed on a significantly worse hand, and vulnerable to boot. I would negative X and correct 3♦ to 3♥.