Apollo81

The usual agreement is that any call other than double is forcing to game, and double is artificial and shows a bad hand. With this hand I would pass and hope partner bids notrump, because then I can transfer to spades which will right-side the contract if partner has the ♥A. If he can't bid notrump, I'll bid spades.

If the ♥K were the Ace then I would double. In this scenario it's a little bit more likely to be our hand, and we're also less likely to suffer heart ruff(s).

Double. My hand contains much more defensive potential and less offensive potential than it could. Besides, stupid auctions should be punished.

My understanding of Polish club is that opener could actually have a 3-card major here if he happens to be 3235, and responder might not pass with less than 3-card support. I agree with gnasher that partner's inaction on the hand makes LHO quite likely to hold the 17-19 5!♠ hand. It seems like responder didn't know this when he passed 1♠ (opener could still have 12-14 balanced with 4♠ pretty easily). So I am passing 1♠ not because I like my defensive prospects, but because I don't like my offensive prospects (partner didnt X 1♠) and I am a little worried that my opponents are cold for 4♠.

I am happy with pass. The spade holding sucks unless partner has Hx, and even then we'll need a reasonable break to make game.

I would reopen on both, the first with X and the second with 3♣. On the first, we might get doubled (if responder XXs and opener has spades), but we might also miss a game if we pass. On the second, I just don't see getting doubled when neither opponent has a high club.

4♥. If partner passes and we miss a cold slam, I blame the methods.

4♦. Since this is an impossible bid, partner should realize that something unusual is happening, although he won't play me for this good a hand. If he bids 4♠, I'll pass and blame missing a cold slam on my handsorting error.

I don't think the hesitation on lead is a factor. If anything it means he may hold a diamond singleton (since we know South has 5+ from the pitch)

No thanks. Seems like partner might have doubled or bid 4♠ on many hands where we belong in the auction.

it cant hurt to cash the ♦A and see one more pitch out of North - what is it

agree

Wouldn't it be nice if we could blithely unblock the ♦KQ, cash the ♥A and ruff a heart, draw the last trump (pitching a low diamond), and then cash the ♦A. At the very least we would have a great count on the hand, and at best someone with both round-suit Queens would have been squeezed already. Given that we will just go down on the above line if North started with either a singleton diamond or a doubleton heart, my preference is to first draw North's last trump pitching the ♦7, play two more rounds of hearts ruffing with my last trump and then cash the ♦KQ. I will have a partial count on the hand at this point, and I still have a positional squeeze available against North if he held both Queens. However I still have the option to finesse against South if something weird has happened (such as South showing out on the 2nd round of diamonds).

Agree with mikeh. mikeh's post essentially says "i open using my own advanced/expert judgment, which is better than the rule of 20 although most of the time the two metrics will agree" How on earth is the average non-AE player supposed to apply that at the table? The Rule of 20 may not be the end-all opening metric, but it's certainly an improvement to opening Kxxxx xxx QJxx A and passing KQxx AKxx xxx xx.

The biggest inference that we can take from the ♣10 switch is that the hearts are 3-3. If they weren't breaking, South wouldn't risk leading away from the ♣KT, not knowing who holds the ♣J. <changed previous rest-of-post to the following> I would expect South to hold the ♦8 and North to hold the ♦T from what happened on trick 1. In this case South has led from J8xx, a terrible lead against NT IMO. It was probably his only 4-card suit, or maybe it's possible from the diamond spots that it was a 5 card suit. So if he was 3343, with ♥KJx, he might have played the ♥K on the second round of that suit, forcing an entry into North's hand. If he did that, we might assume the hearts are 4-2 (North with 4) and finesse clubs out of desperation, which is what he would want if he doesn't hold the K. Therefore North is likely to hold 4 clubs and both round suit Kings, so I would go up with the ♣A and play a third heart.

I'd pass. I'm guessing that by bidding or doubling we go for 800/1100 about as often as we get to an otherwise unreachable making game. At total points, I think it needs to be more like 65-35 to justify bidding/doubling. On some hands where we have a making game, partner may be able to balance/overcall/preempt.

I would pass if vulnerable and bid 1NT if non-vulnerable.

agree

On the hands where it's right to compete over 4♠, partner may be able to find a double himself. I pass.

Close one. I feel compelled to overcall 2♥ since I don't need much from partner to produce a heart game.

Good luck partner.

That lead seems an awful lot like a singleton. While ♠JT9x may look like a normal lead, LHO may not have wanted to let the "spade suit" cat out of the bag and may have opted for a trump or diamond lead. As such, I'll win in dummy and cash the ♥A and lead a heart towards my hand, looking silly when RHO had a small singleton, but smart when RHO started with three to the ♥K and spades are 4-1.

Hands like the first one may seem easy, but it's surprising how often these slams are missed even by good players. To me, it seems a routine 1NT-2♣-2♦-3♦-3♥-4♣-4♥, as Ken suggested. Responder could even bid RKC over 3♥.

You have to bid 3♣ (which is certainly non-forcing, since both players have made non-forcing bids and there is a cuebid available). Imagine passing out 2♥ and finding partner with something like ♠Axx ♥JTxxx ♦A ♣Qxxx.

The "Rule of 20" is something that you can use to decide whether to open the bidding with a borderline hand. Add your HCP to the length of your two longest suits. If the total is 20 or more, open, else pass. This will work pretty well most of the time. Factors that might make you pass a hand that meets the rule of 20 include: - HCP are mostly Queens/Jacks - HCP in short suits - lack of spot cards - vulnerable + other negative fators Factors that might make you open a hand that doesn't meet the rule of 20 include: - AJT or KJT combinations, e.g. x AJTxx AJTx xxx (these are under-valued by HCP) - a good 5 card ♠ suit, non-vulnerable at MPs (1♠ opening has a nice lead-directing and preemptive effect) - defensive and offensive trick-strength consistent with an opening bid, e.g. xx AJT9xxx x Axx x - 4th seat with 4+♠ Your example hand is only a 19, plus it is loaded with negatives (poor spades, singleton ♣A, ♦QJ without spot support, vulnerable), therefore it is a clear pass.