Apollo81

I think it's forcing because it's a reverse in a new suit. I don't think most people would interpret 1♦-(1♠)-X-(2♠)-3♣ as forcing.

If they lead 3rd/5th then either RHO returned low from ♥Qx at trick 2 or LHO led from ♥Kxx at trick 1 holding longer diamonds. but yeah, asking is a good idea

Lead the ♦Q. If it doesn't hold, the contract is cold (diamonds come in for 4 tricks). If it holds, lead a heart, putting RHO on lead.

So you chose the last option given in the poll. I didn't invite you to choose your own methods.

What are their other openings?

I usually open 1 on these hands (AKQ7th and out). Some exceptions: 1st favorable: open 4 3rd favorable: open 4 3rd other vulnerabilities: open 3 4th: open 2♠ or 3♥ depending on my long suit

Red/Red, IMPs AKQJ9 A1075 84 63 I am hesitant to post this because the auction is non-standard and I don't want to hear the usual round of "in my system I would do this" or complaints about the methods, but here goes: 1♦(1) - 1♠ 2♥(2) - 3♥(3) 4♣(4) - ??? (1) catchall (no 5M or some minor oriented hands) 11-15 bid (2) x4y5+, 14-15 HCP, x & y < 4 (3) natural and GF (4) non-serious control-showing (.A.) Do you agree with 3♥? If not, how would your auction go after this playing Lebensohl in this auction (similarly to after a reverse in Standard methods). (.B.) What now? I believe the options are: B1: 4♦. Not sure how this would be taken. B2: 4♥. To play and certainly would be passed. B3: 4♠. RKC B4: 4NT. This is a spade control-showing bid (aka cuebid) I would probably choose 4NT.

agree

I strongly feel that LTC is not appropriate for this auction. LTC assumes the ability to ruff as needed in partner's hand and he is showing a 3-card limit raise.

maybe I can help. To give us some starting point: Rule of 20: add your HCP and 2 longest suit lengths. Standard is, IMO: --------------------- 18 or less: opening is a mistake 19: normally pass 20: normally open 21: open almost all hands 22+: not opening is a mistake Some examples of 19/21 hands where I would consider a "deviation" from normal appropriate (but I would understand if the normal action was taken) ------------------------- AJ109xxx x Ax xxx open 1♠ A1098x x AJ10xx xx open 1♠ Qx Qxxxx AJ Kxxx pass QJ KJxx QJx QJxx pass If your "bar" is set at: -------------------------- 19.5-20.5 you are playing standard strength openings 19-19.5 you open a little light, but not enough to warn your opponents 20.5-21 you open a little soundly, but not enough to warn your opponents anything else: you are either making a mistake or playing something that I would call "non-standard" Hope this helps.

4H, I could have opened on so much less I guess so I better bid game now. Of coure playing sound openings I would not have opened this hand so I guess I am playing with a regular pard. :) My point being, this like so many other hands is really so dependent on your opening bid requirements. mike777, a suggestion: in general when you post replies you should assume you are playing "standard" strength openings or that you haven't discussed the issue unless the OP states otherwise. You can trivialize pretty much all evaluation decisions by "my non-standard style is xxx on this hand so this decision is clear" but it doesn't help you (or anyone else) learn anything also a general suggestion to everyone: when an auction is posted leading up to a decision the OP generally does not care if the auction to the point of the decision would have been different with your pet methods; don't waste your time -- just give your opinion in the situation posted. You can still post that you disagree with previous bidding but do it because of judgement, not methods

Here's an interesting side question: Partner has just signalled with a spot card (9 or lower) Is it: easier to tell when partner has played low? easier to tell when partner has declined to play low? the same Opinions?

all white IMPs xx Q1098x AJ AQxx 1h-1NT 2c-3h ??

IMPs, all white x Q9x KJx Q1098xx (1c)-1NT-(p)-? See poll for options.

agree

I would open 1♥. I would save a 4♥ opening as Gerben suggests for a more solid heart suit; maybe AQJ10xx

At responder's second bid: If you are playing 2/1 GF and 2♥ promises 6+ Bid 3♦ planning to bid RKC later or just bid RKC now. If you are playing 2/1 GF and 2♥ does not promise 6+ Then bid 3♦ If you are not playing 2/1 GF I'd suggest a 3♣ bid as 3-red is not forcing. Partner would probably bid 3♥ over this, and you would bid RKC.

1♦-1♠ with 4-4 blacks is standard and better for all reasons mentioned. 1♥-2♣ (although not commonly used) with 4-4 blacks is better than responding 1♠ for reasons mentioned. When I play this way I also play that 1♥-2♣-2♠ does not promise extra values.

I agree with your 7♠ call. Even if partner doesn't have the ♠K the finesse will probably work. Change some spots to worse ones and I might cuebid a few things and let pard out in 6 if he wants.

I think it is clear to act. I would double, but I can respect a 3♦ call also.

I think the auction given is fine. I don't understand what happened after the 4NT bid unless your next bid was 7♦.

4♦ would be co-operating with partner's attempts, although it's not clear that you want to co-operate if 3♣ showed extra values.

The bidding given by the OP seems fine to me, and I also agree with Josh

East's 3♦ call is an unfotunate example of bidding by rote instead of thinking.

1♠-4♥* 6♠-??? *splinter all red imps AKxxx x K10xx AJx