dake50

On the auction shown in the diagram where LHO raises and partner doubles, I lead a trump. I expect partner to hold high cards in each pointed suit, so the opponents' main weapon will be trumps. If dummy has a doubleton trump, he rates to have a shortage outside. If trumps are 7-3, a trump lead at trick 1 followed by a second trump lead from partner when he gets in with one of his aces may be necessary to stop a second ruff in dummy. *** Nailed this one. Hard to imagine stopping ruffs is wrong, maybe second best.

Shut my brain off and let partner bring this home. I think try to ruff C4 low, ruff C108 with HAK and win DKA.

Tough to know what is best for a 3C opener, personnally I dont believe too much in improving the contract and prefer to focus on reaching the best game. A la Rosenkraz 3M = a 6 card suit. opener can raise with a stiff H. 3D = ask for 3M 4D & 4M = show fit and ask for a control in the suit bid. You reach a better 4M vs 3Nt contract at the cost of not being able to stop in 3M it also work pretty well with 55 in the majors. *** Thanks for refreshing Rosenkrantz' methods. I'm nearly to that point in developing my new partnership.

What do 3H,3S,3Nt,4C,4D,4H over 3D mean? Somehow cooperating to go slamming? As non-minimum. Did 4S mean bad hand for M-slam with SKxx + HKJ + mA??? What more to cooperate? Or 4S likes 6S, when 3S doesn't? Seems backward.

Now ask if your partner would raise the rebid spades with Sxx, SJx, SQx, Sxxx, SJxx, SQxx or how much better??? When does S-rebid promise 5xS; when 4xS? Further, would opponents overcall 2H over 1S to match the 1H over 1C? 1S does have some preemptive value. Does this shape/strength warrant letting opponents in easy over 1C? And some deterrent value: what sense to overcalling the boss suit when they simply choose the same level S-bid or defend.

Can I believe my eyes???? Holding 2 certain tricks and on lead against a NT slam you would NOT double??? Show me how 6NT wouldn't fail on the lead of the AS or KS?? Am I missing something??? *** Yes. We've already won 1 MP-BAM on this hand. When we have the +1, what do you think the gain is? A +1 gilded?? Or are your teammates in this same 6Nt-1?? Sure 6Nt fails. But does 7C/7D? Not likely 7H as few wouldn't transfer to H. Can't be likely 7C/7D loses our +1, but if it does??? Lost +1 trying to 'gild the lily'.

I would never double as my teammates aren't off one in 6Nt. That is, this BAM double only wins 1/2 MP-BAM if my teammates are -50. Mine aren't.

Ya-ya. Hands that would balance would have raised 3S to 4S, likely succeeding. -- 4-4 MM about a 10 A+KQ if 9. -- any 6cM with as above. Maybe tops not good for 2nd seat weak-2. -- Never CA, nor CK, nor CQ. Stuff in their suit is stuff not in our suits.

Any bid suggests higher. What does 3D: Ogust gain? Won't each auction have an "I'm not liking higher" bid? Won't each auction have an "I've got this single" bid later? I actually like Nt feature: stop/lead-inhibit on the 3-level; and short ask/tell at the 4-level, step bid for keys ask. ... Maybe Ogust by a passed hand: "with my stops, can I run 7xC in 3Nt? with a fitting CQx?

I ran a simulation with the first 2 hands having no bid, 3rd hand a normal 3C opener (7 cards or a good 6 card suit) and 4th hand fixed as shown. Results for number of tricks made over 1000 deals were: . <=8 9 10+ ♣ 528 283 189 ♥ 613 190 197 ♠ 376 254 370 NT 806 93 101 Difficult to be certain but it looks to me that 3♠ is a winner - it beats pass given that it makes 624 times (unless partner raises a lot when he shouldn't and 3♣ also makes quite often if you pass. -- *** Looks like 3C fails 52.8%; 3S makes 25.4%; 4S makes 37%... always assuming we can get the 3S/4S decision right. I'd guess that switches 10% into 4S-1 from 3S tally. Looks like pass wins most often. Wins big when we get set 3C + set 4S at the other table. Further what if "normal 3C" is deviant in 3rd seat? Will 2+DT preempt find a double of 4S? On a non-strong auction by us? A biggest plurality is 3S making 8 or fewer tricks 37.6%. The double hoping to get 3H into the picture fails 61.3%.

Since the opponents have found a fit and partner has not raised our first suit, a fit in our second suit is pretty likely. -- Phil King *** Nailed it. When 3D shows 5-5 and offensive honors IN my suits (not quacks in theirs ::: aka 'pure'), what to do with 6-4, maybe even exceptional 5-4? Use 2NT! Good meaning for 2Nt even with unlimited 1H - just puts lots of strong cases into reopening double.

Tough one. With no prime card outside their hearts, North only has "partner suggested 6S" with his 5S bid to reason on. I like a 6-th spade, I like a C-sngl (maybe it doesn't duplicate partner's CAKQ/CKQJ). I have about my minimum hcp to have made a positive over 2H. I'd go 6S, but I have a rep for finding 120% of slams.

"But the auction tells us that we're unlikely to be outgunned, and very unlikely to be doubled." -- gnasher *** Assuming of course the 3rd-seat 3C was very weak. Not a good defense deviation in 3rd-seat. If 3S is systemically not really strong: 18+; thus limited, won't that blab to good-defense 3C try double?? Some such as CAK +HQJ10 +Sx(S-void) suggesting bad S-split and a defensive bonanza. Little danger in getting higher to 4C -- if partner can't see that bonanza.

"Do you fear 4S making as well?" -- the hog *** Picture for me what you think a passed partner's hand MUST have to make 4S. Isn't it 2 useful cards and something more? Is that even in the 30% to expect from passed partner? That repeats my reasoning. Show your reasoning -- construct partner's hand and suggest that construction is anywhere close.

In general, what is the supposed advantage of such strong diamond systems as opposed to strong club systems, or sttandard? It seems like a strong diamond system is nothing more than a standard precision 1C with a nebulous 1D but with 1D and 1C reversed and slightly different point ranges for the various opening bids. am I missing something here? -- *** I suspect the intent is to untangle little hands at the 1-level conveniently. Even trading space for strong hands. *** My personal take is that is backwards. Little hands need to get up on their fit; quits if no fit found quickly. If the 1C structure jumps to 3C/3D often to preempt opponents' Major, yet generally safe, that could work.

I actually like pass. Partner's passed hand had better have 2 useful cards to even come close. Shudder to think if West has everything over my tenaces and 3C was 3rd seat with CAK-6th +HQJ10 +S:4-1. East can try a double with his "good defense" preempt. IMP's fear the -800 = -12 disaster more than 140-50 = +3. AK +A +K is enough "stuff" but 5=3=3=2 is no surprise shape.

Let me see: Did you notice the negative double over your 3♦ call? And you still felt that bidding one of LHO's suits was a good idea? Not to mention jumping in it? Even if partner held 3 of them, on the likely 4-1 break, precisely how many diamond winners do you think you can establish and run? Did you notice your heart void? Did it occur to you that maybe partner has the decency to hold 5 of them even if the opps have found a fit? Your hand maybe warrants the plan of pre-empting in diamonds and then bidding spades, but you forgot an important part of bridge: listening to the auction, so that when the opps tell you that your plan is probably suicidal, you stop bidding. At least, that's my impression of what happened. -- mikeh *** *** Nailed it.

I suspect you are looking for some meta-strategy to list out your bids. Look up Pete Matthews and Marshall Miles. They both wrote on these types of auctions AND reasoned their intent. Distill from that.

Because partner sucks at defence and declarer play alike (let alone gauging pass vs pull!), in case he was going to pass or bid 3D over x. We want to declare something and certainly 3♦ seems to be the best contract to declare at this point. This is just a hypothesis, based partly on the 1st round 1NT. __ gwnn *** I think this nails this case. "With this "punter", I shall declare any reasonable contract. I shall leave no chance for partner to misjudge double. A discerning TD knows this. It is normal *with-a-"punter"* strategy. No UI used, he was going to bid 3D whatever mannerism he saw as his best chance.

Yeah, my 3D was an "I like" preference. But, this is a 4342 balanced hand - no surprise tricks for partner. No honor stuff and bal => this is a pass. My optimistic guess is 4D is close; their 4H is also close; I quit.

I have UI: I have SK but my bid denied SK. I am obligated to bid as if I didn't HAVE that SK.

Am I getting this right? Full disclosure when someone opens 1Nt and we compete, but not full disclosure after a weak 2? [i mean full disclosure to mean what a chosen bid means AND what a not chosen bid means. ie. both the positive - here's what he says he has; and here's what he denies.]

*** Of course if you *define* Swiss raises as a 4C and 4D raise. Besse claimed 24 routes to 4S after 1S opened; 32 after 1H. Now shouldn't SOME of these routes be defined raises? Eg. delayed splinter, advanced Q-bid, help suit raise, generally exploring, etc.? The *red gerring* "4C/4D are unsound to say the least" omits many other inferences that are bypassed.

The distinction for me is "do I want Sxxx raise with a K on the side?". No opens 1S; yes opens 1C to rebid 1S over presumed 1D.