benlessard

For slightly more than 10 years I play 1D H or pts (pts = any 6-8 and any GF bal) 1H = 4+S weak or GF 1S = no M weak or GF wiht 5D+4C D>=C 1NT =6clubs weak or GF 2C = 6D weak or GF 2D = 6H weak or GF 2H = 6S weak or GF 2S+ GF with 5C+4D C>D all our 6card transfer are singlesuiter unless we have a weak hand and 6M+4m. the key part is 1C-1D-1H-?? pass = weak with 4+H 1S = inv no M or GF bal 1NT = inv with 4 or 5S -----only time responder is making a non forcing bid that is not game. 2C = H+D GF or 6D INV 2D = INV with 4H or 5H+C GF 2H = 6S inv or H+S GF 2S & higher = C+4H GF We play a weak nT and 15+ bal is opened 1C. What is the key trick is that since opener is likely 15-20 he will often accept the transfers and responder can pass with negative hand and go on with GF or sp hands. The drawback is when opener is 21+ he must super accept or refuse the transfer. Our relay break bid is 2D. 1C--1H--?? 1S = 3S 15-20 1NT = 15-20 denies 3S 2C = natural 15-20 2D = almost GF 2H natural 6H 15-17 (but could be 15-20) 2S natural 19-21 with 4S 2NT 21-22 What make a system like this very strong is that its a shape first approach, with unbalanced hand or a weak hand responder show his shape with a balanced hand we let opener show his shapes. Almost all of responder rebids are forcing (mostly xfers) so we have a huge amount of extras sequences. We play narrow 2 pts NT rebid ranges so once we bypass 1NT we stop in 2Y or we are GF. We rarely play 2NT (unless 21-22 vs 0-3 and some case where opener is short in H) and never play 3 in a unless opener got clubs. The only thing i changed was 1C-1D-1H used to be forcing. Im now convinced NF is better because it allow 1C-1D-1H-1S-1NT to be 15-16, 1C-1D-1NT = 17-18 this is worth more than the case where opener is 22+ and need a cheap forcing bid. I also tought about using canape style with both majors and GF but i didnt change it for simplicity.

Somebody else found this for me From http://worldbridge.org/Data/Sites/1/media/documents/minutes/lcmin2008beijing.pdf LAW 20 There is no infraction when a correct explanation discloses that partner’s prior explanation was mistaken. The words “nor may he indicate in any manner that a mistake has been made” (in Law 20F5(a)) do not refer to compliance with the overriding requirement of the laws always to respond to enquiries under Law 20F with correct explanations of the partnership understandings. Wich initially simply made no sense to me but after reading the 1997 version ive understood what is happening. In the 2007 (Wbf) and 2008 (Acbl) they completly change law 20 and they added... Law 20 F4. If a player subsequently realizes that his own explanation was erroneous or incomplete he must call the Director immediately. The Director applies Law 21B or Law 40B4. So the idea is that when opener announce transfer responder will understand that he gave a misexplanantion and will be forced to call the director. At this point the director will clearly explain to north that he must give explanation according to the authentic agreements (15-17) but that for him the transfer announcement is UI and he will need to bid as if your are in a weak NT sequence. Opener will still bid and explain as if he is in a strong NT sequence and its still UI that responder is GF and doesnt promise 5H. Ive tought about it a lot and nothing else make sense.

This sequence doesnt fit my definition of canape. AFAIK canape is you open your 2nd best suit rather than your longest, you reply a 4 card suit before replying a longest suit at the same level. You bid the 2nd suit rather than the longest when your replying and your GF. Idk Acol enough for the ruling.

This is also a nasty point. Lets just say that it will take me 15 seconds to decide if I should say transfer or not, partner will guess there is a partnership misunderstanding. If you adopt the spirit that you dont try to help partner and just assume that responder is right i dont see how it can backfired (but you bid according that you have UI). Ex 1NT--2D 2H 2D could have been GF stayman or transfers if it take me 15 second to choose one or the other im breaking law 20 F5.

Agree but 20 F5(a) A player whose partner has given a mistaken explanation may not correct the error during the auction, nor may he indicate in any man ner that a mistake has been made. “Mistaken explanation” here includes failure to alert or announce as regulations require or an alert (or an announcement) that regulations do not require. This is a pretty clear sentence to me. Does this law trump the laws on disclosure is not clear but since I prefer to not break a law and maybe give the wrong agreement, than clearly break a law. I was always told that if partner is on the wrong track you cannot wake him up and you cannot help him field the UI mess. The top notch director comment was "its much easier to deal when there is one player that got UI and one player that gave misinformation than when both players of the offending side have UI and gave MI.

[hv=pc=n&s=saj76ha963dakjc94&d=n&v=n&b=5&a=pp1np2hp]133|200[/hv] Your 1NT was wrongly explained as 10-13. VS a weak NT 2H is to play. VS a strong NT its a transfer and your systemic response is 3C showing max 4 trumps and doubleton clubs.

http://bridgewinners.com/article/view/what-are-your-agreements-after-a-misbid-or-a-wrong-alert/?cj=399056#c399056 Shorter example that goes with law 20 F5(a) A player whose partner has given a mistaken explanation may not correct the error during the auction, nor may he indicate in any man ner that a mistake has been made. “Mistaken explanation” here includes failure to alert or announce as regulations require or an alert (or an announcement) that regulations do not require. This came for a hand where 1NT (15-17 from opener point of view) but alerted as 10-13 responder bid 2H. Now 2H is to play vs 10-13 but xfer vs 15-17. Do you announce transfer ?? If you announce transfer you are immediatly breaking 20 F5. You are giving the wrong information to your opps (im not using misinformation) since they will think hes got !S while you know hes got !H. You are also giving UI to your partner, he will notice that 1NT should have been 15-17 or that you (opener) think that in that seat condition its 15-17 and not 10-13 so the partnerhsip misunderstanding will be exposed to both players. If you dont annonce transfers you are somehow not properly disclosing your agreements since you know for sure or think that 1NT is 15-17 and that 2H is a xfer. Wich law to break ? the one about not giving UI and not waking up partner or the one about disclosing your a priori agreements (2H is xfer after a strong NT) Note that im not asking on what should you bid. Its clear that the 10-13 is UI, so will need to bid accordingly, this post is all about what should be announced.

I agree wiht Fluffy, I think 6H is normal with overcaller hand. 2920,1930,0841(!DA) etc are all cases where we overcaller got 3 covers.

Here is how i see it. How many losers do we expect for 5H ? a 2S red overcall on a bad day is going to be one cover card. KQxxxx x Qxxx Kx it may be worse than this with a 7th spades. Most of the times its going to be 2 cover cards but it still going to be 3+ a fair amount of times. I think that 5H is 4 losers, 3 losers is not only super rare but we will all force to slam with this. With 5 i would just signoff hoping that if overcall got 4 cover he will make an extra move. Im confident that 90+% of the players will agree that 5H is 4 losers. Obviously the 5H bidder should be convinced that the cases where overcaller got 3 cover cards outweight the cases of 1 cover card. But he should also think about cases where overcaller got 2 covers but something bad happen like a S ruff or a Qxx in H. The most important one he should think about cases where his partner is going to think that hes got 3 cover but got only 2. 2920,1930,2821, etc these are all cases where the K of !D is going to be a cover. So its normal that the !DK will be misevaluated. There is also cases where hes got only 8H but a minor ace with those case the !H Q will be seen as half a cover. Axxxxx Qx AQx xx i would really think my hand got 3 covers and raise to 6H. Here I think that the trap is that advancer hand make the QH and the K of !D not being cover cards. So i guess cases where overcaller will get it wrong are high enough to make 5H a slight underdog proposition.

I think you need to do it step by step. 1.......void....KQxx....4.783...1.....4.783 2.......x.......KQx.....6.217...2.....12.435 3.......xx......KQ......6.783...1.....6.783 4.......Q.......Kxx.....6.217...1.....6.217 5.......Qx......Kx......6.783...2.....13.565 6.......Qxx.....K.......6.217...1.....6.217 7.......K.......Qxx.....6.217...1.....6.217 8.......Kx......Qx......6.783...2.....13.565 9.......Kxx.....Q.......6.217...1.....6.217 10......KQ......xx......6.783...1.....6.783 11......KQx.....x.......6.217...2.....12.435 12......KQxx....void....4.783...1.....4.783 Spisu do you agree that this chart look like the a priori distribution of all the split possible when we are missing KQxx. Note that the 4th column is the permutations. 3--KQ5 is slightly less likely than KQ--53 However note taht on line 2 x--KQx is multiplied by 2 to represent both 3--KQ5 & 5--KQ3 added together.

I agree with Phil i dont want to play 2Cx, I want to play 2Cxx so its a FP sequence and FP inv is a nice method XX = medium interest in 2Cxx while pass is strong interest in 2Cxx or no desire to declare.

If 1H is never 5332. 1H--?? 1S relay can be anything 1NT = 5+ Spades 2m = non forcing 1H-1S-? 1NT= clubs-----2C=pref,2D art GF,2H=pref,3C/3H inv. Note that if you make a pref opener will bid on with 18+ 2C=diamonds (same pattern but 2S is art GF 2D=6H (2S is art GF) 2H = min with 4S+5H 2S = 15-17 with 4S+5H 2NT = H+S 18+ 1H-2m will be somewhat rare but I dont think having 2 GF relay is optimal. Possible to use 1H-2C as to play 2D inv raise to 2H GF with D 1H-2D = GF with clubs.

"minimum hands with clubs are a burden on the 1♣ opening" Thats why we prefer a similar scheme but with weak NT. 1C = 15+bal, 15+ with clubs,any 22+ & one other strong hand of your choice (for us its 15-17 with 5M but something else could easily be better)

Players are really overthinking on this one. Its a bid that you will see less than once every 5 years so its not going to have a convulated meaning, its going to be natural and straightfoward. 6S as a inv to 7 level just make no sense. So 6S is I want to play at the 6 level but dont know between 6S and 6NT. This should be obvious. Yes its possible to bid 3m followed by 6S/6NT but who cares, I might want to play the hand because of finesse position, after all im likely to be stronger than opener.

4S and enough strenght to play 6S/6NT, I tought this was standard. I dont see what else it could be. Even if you play pick a slam 5NT followed by 6S should be even if you have 4S you may pick 6NT.

Because you have enough space to show how many pts you have and show suits for most 2 suiters. In the others cases its better if its responder who show some extras rather than opener. 1D-1H-1S-1NT is a sort of Gaz but by responder. Responder either got 9+ or both minors 1D-1H-1NT-2C is similar. Responder is 9+ So if opener got 15+ he will force to game and if hes min he will stop low. "We always have 4+ hearts if weak, else it is a GF. The downside of using it as a relay (to me) is opening hands with three-card support (and memory/time issues)." the reason why we use 3+ is that 1D-1S can show 5 (or 4225), 1D-1NT is free to show 6 clubs and 2C 2D are both !D raises. !S and 1NT are not that frequent but they are really profitable when they come up. With my structure you have 3 !H raise at the 2 level at your disposal. 1D-1H-2H (4H 15-17) 1D-1H-1NT followed by 2H = 4H 12-14 1D-1H-1S followed by 2H = 1444,0445,0454. I guess you could switch 1D-1H-3H = 15-17 1D-1H-2H = 12-14 1D-1H-1NT-2Y-2H = 3 card raise short clubs 3361,4351. 1D-1H-1S-??-2H = 3 card raise short spades 1363,13(54) other prossible sequences 1D-1H-2C(!S)-??-return to H for the 4351 with extras. this mean that you should switch. 1D-1H-2C = 15+ with 4D+4S 1D-1H-2D = 5D+4S 11-14. !

Gaz is poor & unnecessary if your willing to always bypass 1NT. For example 1D-1H (relay) D+H, 2S+ = D+H 18+ 2H= D+H 15-17 1NT followed by 2H = 12-14 D+S 2D= D+S 15-17 2C = D+S 11-14 or 18+ singlesuiter D 1NT---?? 2D not inv------Pass = 11-15 with 6D 2C= 9+ ----------2D = 11-14 with 6D So 1D-1H-1NT-2D-?? pass = 11-17 with 6D 2H=12-14 with H 2S = 18+ 6D no sing rest is sing 18+ 6D 1D-1H-1S (clubs) ?? 1NT= inv+ 2C = like clubs dont like D 2D like D dont like clubs 1D-1H-1S-1NT-?? 2C = Clubs>=D 2D = D>C 2H = 1444,0454,0445 2S = 18+ wiht 5C So the only type of hand we cant show the strenght is when its clubs and D the range is 11-17 however since responder can inv. with 1NT its cost nothing. So as long as 1H relay show at least 3H when weak your are ok. Sometimes 1NT would have been better than 2m however playing the in best minor when its 4D+5C is more important.

This look like a wtp 3D for me. For sure i would prefer to have 5 trumps but QJxx and a stiff is good enough.

[hv=d=n&v=0&b=1&a=1d1s2dp2np]133|100[/hv] AFAIK in a weak NT setup, 2Nt here show a hand worth 16-17 pts, with 18-19 bal and a stopper north is too strong to bid 2NT. This mean that 2D need to be somewhat constructive and if you dont want to play game facing an opening of 18-19 bal you must make make the preemptive raise of 3D or pass rather than make the single raise. However if your in a strong NT setup do you also play that 2D is somewhat constructive or that 2D can be trash ? If 2D can be bid with only 4 pts, it mean that opener will need to bid 2NT wide ranging. 2NT could be some offshape 16 pts up to 19 bal. If your NT range is 14-16 what does opener do with 19 bal & a stopper ? Do you bid 2NT wide ranging or you simply GF ? My poll question, assuming that you play 15-17 1NT and a jump to 3D is preemptive what the minimum for 2D here ?

Responder would need both minors to bid 3NT here wich is highly unlikely. I also believe that lead directing is not a good argument since the responses are usually something like. 2NT = I prefer D 3C = i prefer clubs or 2NT= no 4m 3C= 4C 3D =4D wich mean that its responder who will declare most 3D contracts wich mean that you will be on lead most of the times.

I never knew it was possible, I guess I remove a checkmark by accident.

[hv=pc=n&s=st73hjt97dcakt932&d=e&v=n&b=2&a=pp1np2s]133|200[/hv] MP strong field. 2S was alerted and explained as both minors or signoff in diamonds.

"but I think opener will be very seldom interested in hearing about responder's long and weak minor." Strongly disagree. Opener will most likely be 5431/6421/5521 vs those hand type knowing responder long minor will often make a difference. It also allow you to get some 5m or play 3NT without a stopper. The thing I dont care is stopping at 3M. Assuming that by opener strong hand is 22+. If opener can have only 20 pts its important to stop in 2M or at least to 2S so 2S cant be a relay IMO. 2NT= GF 3m= natural weakish 3M = weak hand but showing the best minor (stopper hopefully) and no fit. 4 level = weak hand with M fit. If you really want to stop in 3M I suggest 3D as a force to 3H to singoff in 3M. Something like 3NT directly crap with both minors, 3D-3H-3NT crap but tolerance for majors.

This hand is a good example why i think its poor to play splinter that can be either void /singleton. I much prefer to go slow with the singleton hands and show my hand right aways with the voids. If you get voids hand and dont want to splinter with them than you know youve got a problem.

Its a very interesting hand from a lead directing point of view. For me passing/5S followed by X 6D would 100% be lightner H void or its going down even if you lead H. For 5C its clear that its lead directing. So i guess 5H could be inv to sac or Kx or stiff in H. Considering that we are vul I think lead directing is just way better. 5H is a very clever lead directing bid. My guess is that it gain way more often than it blow the defense.