benlessard

For high level preempts you can simply replying in turbo fashion. 1st step even 2nd step odd no Q 3rd odd+Q no extras (we might have all the keycard but only 12 tricks) 4th odd+Q extras/sources of tricks (meaning if we have all the keyc we need to be in 7) 5th to play At the 5 level VUL you can probably ignore the Q of trumps and save a step.

Im Canadian and one thing I can say about weak NT players here is that many "A" players that play weak NT understand that its better to bid directly natural with a singlesuiter and wriggle (2C/XX/FP) with a 2-3 suiter than do the opposite. IMO nothing come close to the very simple 2Y= natural 5card XX= at least 44. pass = pts or 4333 (so to play) opener can XX with a 5 card suit. IMO transfers, suction and FP methods are all inferior because they allow advancer to show pts with very little risk. No matter what you gain by rightsiding you lose because they will be in better FP situation.

At unf there is a good case for pass being forcing but vul-vul its not a forcing pass. I play a lot more FP than the majority of players (because a lot of players dont regard vuln in their FP agreements) so when I say its not-forcing im nearly always right, however when I say its forcing pass a lot will disagree :)

What would be more pertinent is just check cases where one table open and the other didnt and there was imps win or lost. I believe opening 1C light is losing imps, while 1M light is a winning style. 1D depend on the lenght promise

:lol:

South should really learn to show his void. Here its only because responder got both pointed ace and you have the kings in both of these suit that you can lie with the keycards otherwise turbo would be a major fail. That is the big drawback of turbo methods compared to regular method is that with a void you are still forced to show keycards if your the one who is going to cross 4Nt.

http://bridgewinners.com/article/view/oddeven-number-of-keycards-wich-one-is-more-likely/ http://www.bridgebase.com/forums/topic/76017-skip-turbo-method-reverse-train/ I dont think it matter either way.

I dont care too much if the hand is too good for 1S or not enough good for 2C. I look at how the auction might unfold. std jump-shift 1S--1NT--3D std 2C 2C-2D(wait)-2S-??-3D look pretty equivalent to me With my system it might go like 1S-1NT-2C(♦)--2D (5-11 pref)--?? 3H= exactly 6142 18-21. So with a relay system or systme with artificial rebid the incentive to open 1S are greater. Without any gadget i would open 2C because all thing being equal why risk 1S--all pass.

1C--1S is 4+♥ (probably denies 4♠ unless GF) 8pts+ but unbalanced so if there is no H fit they probably scramble in responder 2nd suit (always a minor I guess) .

IMO its not just the strenght as the failure to overcall. 1D--(P)--3NT 4Th seat is more likely to have an easy lead than 2nd seat. When its a 1Nt/2NT that show no majors you often rightside if declarer got only 2 cards and dummy 3 or 4 in the suit lead. Where few people make the effort and I believe there is a fair amount of imps to be won is when there is 3 suit bid below 2NT. A system that allow you to grab NT with Hx (Kx,Qx,Jx,Tx) & make partner declarer with Axx/Kxxx is a clear winner.

We did some tweaking for the (4441) with 4D & for the 13(54) hands we now often rebid a delayed 2H natural. 1444 is D+C+H 1D-1H-1S-1NT-2H (1444,0454,0445 11-16) 1D-1H-1S-2C-?? here responder is weak and prefer clubs, however when he is weak (non invitationnal) and got only one minor his H are always real so we use 2D = to play 2H (0444 +1) or 1354 or GF with longer clubs than diamonds. 2H= 18+ low shortness ♦>=♣ 2S = 18+ 2254 2NT 18 + 1354 3C = 18+ 1255 etc.. 1D-1H-1S-2D-?? here we keep 2H natural, we found out that relaying early wasnt that useful since when responder is non invitionnal there is no slams. 4144 we just show D+S and hide the clubs. 2C if 11-14 or GF 2D if 15-17 4441 11-14 here we show the S. 1D-1H-2C-2D-?? 2H = natural weakish 4441,4351 2S = 18+ low short 2NT = 18 + 4252 etc.. 4441 15-17 here we raise H directly 1D-1H-2H (4H 15-17) again if responder is non invitationnal he should have real H unless 4333. 4324,4225 are hand where its better to bid 1S (NF). 4234 we did 1S or we raise D. Honestly if you play unbalanced D and you have a good memory and steady partnership no natural system will even come close. Its a bit like Moscito responses after 1D(♥)-1H except that 4M+5m arent possible so you are in a better shape even if the range is wider.

Another way to see it is that 1D-1H-1S-?? 2C & 2D as art and forcing XYZ style are very good bids since they are multiplier of sequences and fairly easy to use, so its make sense to make the 1D-1H-1S start more frequent. Probably also available is to open 1C when ??44 so that way 1D-1H-1NT always show 5D+3H unless 3343 or 2254 with pts in ♥.

From a follow up point of view 1D-1S (H denying !S) can never be worse than 1D-1S (♠ may have ♥). Whatever problem you have after 1D-1S(♥) they will be the same with suit switch. So the problematic 4153 is now 1453 after 1D-1S in standard. ------------------------------------------------------------------------------ I think the inversion is more likely to work over a standard 1D opening, once you play a 4+ unbalanced 1D opening you have 1H relay that is probably a superior method. ---------------- Anyway the way is see the inversion is simple. 1D-1H-?? 1NT and higher bids all deny 3S/4H (unless 3343 for 1Nt) this is a huge plus. You can even rebid 2NT with a singleton spades. Like a 2Nt rebid can now be 18-19 bal 2344 & a 1363 16 pts (unsuitable for 3D). 55 hands responder will be able to show the 5H by a rebid 2H (NF) 2C-2D-2H (inv) unless the bidding go 1D-1H-2C with tend to deny 3H anyway unless 0355. 54 hands are never a problem since you know if you have a fit or not with certainty in both majors at the same time (unless 3343/54??) and you can stop in 1NT. 45 hands sometimes miss when opener is 3352/3361 and responder is 45?? weakish. 64 46 always do way better with the inversion. since you will NEVER miss the side 4-4 fit. Earlier this week Ive bid about 300 hands of 1D opener and not once we missed a 4-4 fit & we never played 3M since with XYZ you can inv and stop in 2M. The only problem hands ive saw is when opener is 15-17 with 1354 and it goes 1D-1H-?? you are too good for 1NT and if you rebid 2C responder with 5503 or 4513 will pass. This is the case where you also have problem in stand & where rev flannery is useful. When opener is 3253/3352 and responder is 44?? you are forced to play 2S instead of 1NT.

I strongly believe in 1D show 4+ and 1S is 5+ or at least I want 3 bids that show 4+ suits at the one level not just 2. I also believe that 1C opening should be forcing. I also strongly believe that 2M should be natural weakish but fairly wide. NV or in 4th seat I insist to play a weak NT. If 1D is 4+ than there is no need to limit it to 16 pts (i prefer 11-21 even in a strong club system) This for me is way more important than 1H showing 4+ or 5+ (ive played both) or what do you do with a 4414. Where my view differ the most from most people is that i strongly believe that there is no need to open light if you dont show a real suits that partner can raise easily. I even think its a costly mistake. I send a thanks you card to all my opponents who open 1D (2+ or worse) with 10-12 bal.

When i play that 1D is 4+ Unb (and 1NT rebid by opener is forcing) I use 1D-1H-1S (both minors) the logic being that ??64,??54,??55,??45 & 1444,0445,0454 are more numerous than D+4S. Also you want some minors hand to be resolved at 2C while D+S hand can be resolve at 2D. This is quite complicated however since we relay the hands however its great and we obliterate our opponents on those hands.

IMO rev flannery is a MP convention. When opener rebid 1NT both methods you dont need rev Flannery. If opener open 1C with 44 in the minors and you play T-Walsh opener will often rebid 1NT with a singleton. When opener rebid 2m and you hold 5431,5422 5-9 there is no reasons to think that 2M will do better than 2D. Its only when your maximum and 1D-1S-2D(underbid) and you could make 4H otherwise being in 2D is just better. IMO rev flan is mostly useful when 55(??) and when 5413 especially when opener rebid 2C with 1453 too good for 1NT rebid (12-14) but not good enough to reverse Using 1D--2H as 4-8 and 1D--1H--2m--2H as 9-11 is just better imo and quite more frequent. 5431 look frequent at 13% but there is 24 permutation so in the end a specific 5431 is only 0.5%.

Just to make sure i understand. 1D-1H(♠)-?? 1S = H or 13(54) 2C = some type a 3 card support for ♠ ?

Three years ago i wrote this http://www.bridgebase.com/forums/topic/66259-inverting-1h-and-1s-after-1d-opening/ I didnt play with this scheme since my 1D is unbalanced but i did bid a lot of practice hands. I got an email from a player playing this scheme system but without the inversion. It allow him to bid 1H with both majors and discard the need for reverse Flannery (lame convention IMO) Ive decide to think about what it look without the inversion to better understand the mechanic of 1D-1H-1S artificial. I did some minor tweek and start to teach the method with the inversion to some promising university juniors. So lets see without the inversion first. 1D--?? 1H= 4H may have longer ♠ 1S= ♠ denies 4H (I guess a later 2H by responder will be ART or some exception with both M) 1D-1H-?? 1S = 4S or 3H (except 3343) 1NT = 3154,3244,3253, or 2254 with good ♠ (Kx,HH,) notice that most of these hands have 3!S so if responder is 4H+5S or 5H+5S he can safely rebid ♠ 2C = ??55,??64, 2254 with poor ♠, 3154 (with extras) it always denies 4S/3H, 2D = 6D denies 4S/3H and 4C unless vgood ♦ and poor clubs. The tricky part is 1D-1H-1S-?? 1NT = 5-10 deny 4S/6H/4D may have 5H 2C = XYZ type of bid, to play 2D or many INV. 2D = Non inv with 4S or GF unclear direction 2H = Non INV with 6H 2S = non INV with 6S+4H *** (the inv work better) 2NT = natural INV with no D tolerance, 4324,4225,4??6 (with a bal inv and D tol you go via 2C-2D-2NT) 3C+ = GF clear direction 1D-1H-1S-1NT-?? 2C = art extras (natural is unlikely 4144,4054) 2D = 6D+4S or 6D+3H but no interest to play in H in a possible 4-3 fit ( i previously argued VS awm but he was right, I amde a mistake to think 2D should be for 6D+ 3H,) 2H = 3 card ♥ unbalanced minimum. 3361, 2362 etc... you lose the ability to play 2D instead of 2H in 4-3) 2S = reverse D+S (not always GF) 2NT+ GF with 3 card support. 1D-1H-1S-2C-?? (2C is many INV or to play 2D) 2D any hand under 17 pts 2H 16-17 with 3H NF 2S 16-17 with 4S NF 2NT 18+ with 4S rest is GF with 3H 1D-1H-1S-2C-2D 2H = Here without the inversion I dont see how it can work. 2S = Here without the inversion I dont see how it can work. With the inversion this segment work pretty well. 1D-1H (4+D,show 4S may have H) 1S-2C (3S or 4H, puppet to 2D) 2D-?? (2D was forced unless 17+ 2H= INV with both M you may endup in 4-3 !S fit however 2S= INV exactly 5S 2NT= INV denies 4H denies 5S, with D tolerance 3C= INV 4S+6C 3D= INV 4S+4/5D 3H= INV with 4S+6H 1D-1H-1S-2D-?? (2D is art Gf or both majors NON inv) 2H= 3H 2S = 4S under 15 2NT = 3H but 16-17 3C/3D/3H = 3H GF 3S = 16-17 with 4S Idk why they are not playing the inversion but bidding 1H with both majors look playable if you can solve some of the inv hands. -------------------------------- ----One key idea is that when it goes 1D-1H-1NT (1Nt deny 3 card support unless 3343) because you denied 3 card support responder got no desire to repeat his major with 5. So instead of 1Nt being 2or3 in partner major you are mostly 1or2, but when you have 1or2 in responder major and rebid 1NT instead of 2m you nearly always have exactly 3 in the unbid major, so responder with 4H5S (no inversion) or 4S/5H (with inversion) can canape safely.---- EX 1D-1H-1NT-2S to play. 1D-1H-1NT-2C-2D-2S INV with 5S/4or5H If it goes 1D-1H-1S because 1S is art & you have extra bidding sequence available, its convulated but you can get away with it) EX 1D-1H-1S-2D Instead of being 100% Gf 2D can be both majors non INV at little cost. ------------------------------------------------------------------

Mrs. Guggenheim would also avoid the 4C cue with x KTxxxx Kxx KQ9 In defense she would also lead the club ace.

I have possibly a loser in every suit. On the vast majority of hands where partner can cover 3/4 of my problems he would make a slam try.

a multi inv 2D allow agressive inv with both M or inv with 4M+5D or 4M+!C stopper(s), if overcaller pick the right major you can be in 4M otherwise you will bid 2Nt/3D and maybe he can bid again.it also IMO "rightside" 2H when advancer is weak. GF hands with 5M are easy to bid, losing a level on those hand dont bother me that much. I see a the odds our slam make side after (2C)--X--(P)--?? being significantly inferior to 1Nt---(2D)---?? but in the 2nd auction we still agree that being able to stop in 2H is worth more than being able to xfer with 2H.

"If giving up a natural 2♦ in auction 1 it is surely much better to play transfers" I disagree, its much better to be able to invite and stop in 2M than a transfer that put responder on lead. I would just play 2D = any inv, or GF without 5M .....2H= i refuse a H inv .....2S= I accept a H inv but refuse a !S inv .....2NT i like both Majors but my hand is not good enough to GF .....rest is GF 2M/3D = to play 2NT/3C = GF Transfer are usually best when slam on your side is possible & you put opener/overcaller on lead.

Ive tried a version of it and it wasnt a success. Our 3D was showing values and forcing with paradox responses. 3M/4D direct was weak. overcaller responses after 3D. 3H = i refuse a H invite 3S = i accept a H invite but refuse a S inv. 3NT = no 4M but ive got a stopper. 3352 type of hands 4C&4D i dont remember exactly but one bid was 44 in both M. This allow agressive inv hands with 44 in the majors to get to the best game without being forced to the 4 level. It also allow 4M+ stopper to do a kind of stayman. The losses are when overcaller is very strong, he know advancer got values but doesnt know advancer suit, so some follow up auction are a bit messy. Anyway for single suiter. You always play one level higher when you have diamonds but sometimes play one level lower when advancer got an inv and overcaller is minimum. This look about even until you realized that in close call advancer can simply bid game if you have to be one level too high that what you would prefer, if its at least a game its way less costly than if its a partscore contract. Also we got a couple of 4Dx. In the end I was fairly convinced its was poor method. I think the same idea at the one level got way more sense especially if you double very light (pre balancing).

From a bidding space theory it make sense that in GF auction you want to bid the cheapest bid quite often. im 100% convinced that over 1H its really inneficient to play that 1S always shows 5+S.

captaincy is overrated, when you make a bid that ask but doesnt show anything its often not optimal. When you show something even if you where captain initially partner can usually deduce what you need next. over 4NT i would suggest my last train inversion. 5C= to play 5D (we are missing 2 keycards) or I have all the keycs + Q of trumps 5D = we are missing one keycards but im not sure for slam, or if you prefer we are missing one keycard and possibly the Q of trumps) NOT FORCING 5H = we have all the keycards, i dont have Q of trumps & i dont have K of S 5S = all the keyc but missing Q of trumps,and the K of clubs but i have spade king.. obviously 6D is to play, missing one keycard or simply to play vs a limited hand.