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2NT in this situation would be a 4(324)/ type invitational hand With a non-GF hand I'm looking for the 8 card fit so no need or space to distinguish relative length of minors. Opener is either 5431 w. 3+♦, long ♦ or 4♦(441). Very occasionally you could end up in a minor suit Moysian fit when responder is weak & flat w. 1NT looking horrible , I doubt that would occur in competition. With GF type (1♦-1♠) there is space without competition for opener to show their shape & strength precisely. Happy to share the structure if interested

1NT would be my bid suggesting some sort of length/control in ♠. As North, and In the absence of a negative double, I would place South with at worst 4324 and a non-minimum responding hand. 3♦ then looks reasonably sound with a 6.5ish MLT Playing my unbalanced ♦ approach makes bidding more comfortable as a 5 card minor is likely. A subsequent bid of 3♣ after North's pass then shows 3+ in each of the minors; Pass/Correct. With a weak hand South can bid 3♣ pre-emptively. If North is 1444 then expect the pass.

2nd hand 1♥ -1♠ 2♦-3♣ FSF 3NT - 4♦ GF/SI 4♥ 2KCs - 6♦ no Ks I play Kaplan Inversion 1♥ - 1♠ Forcing NT or 5+♠ GF 1NT balanced or 4+♦ - 2♣ Which? 2♦ 4+♦ - 2♠ 5+♠ GF 2NT Min<3♠ - 3♣ 3NT - 4♦ GF/SI 4♥ 2KCs - 6♦ no Ks

1st hand 1♦-1♠ 3♠ (4+ Str+) - 4♣ SI ctrl (skipping 3NT despite weak suit w. 10 card fit ) MLT of <=8 required plus a KC 4♦ ctrl - 4♥ ctrl 5♦ 3KCs w. K♦-5♥ K♥ 6♠ I play a Transfer Walsh version 1♣ -1♥ 3♦ (4+♠5+♦ Str+) - 4♣ SI ctrl (skipping 3NT despite weak suit w. 10 card fit ) MLT of <=8 required plus a KC 4♦ ctrl - 4♥ ctrl 5♦ 3KCs w. K♦ - 5♥ K♥ 6♠

I play 4♣ after the transfer as keycard with 6+M. Any reason not to bid 5NT - pick a slam?

I don't play LTTC, but basic ITL Q Bids hence the 4♠ bid denying ♥ ctrl. After 4NT I bid 5♠ with a single Ace. By default this leaves North knowing South has A♣ & ♠. After 5♦ North has the option to bid 5♥ with a void if there is a potential grand.

Its not a problem if North bids 4♣ as 4♦ then shows the ♦ control. After 3♠ : 4♣ ctrl & 2♠ honours - 4♦ ctrl 4♠ denies ♥ ctrl - 4NT (2KCs) 5♦ K♦ - 6♠ The slam itself looks marginal from the outset with 25 hcp, but 5♠ should be safe so you can afford to enquire.

For me the 3♥ cue-bid says GF 5+♠ with extras opposite the support X 2♠ - nowhere else to go 3/4♠ - 5+♠ w. defined strength 2NT - GI 4♠ w. partial ♥ stopper 3♣ - 4♠ with something in ♣ 3♦ - 4♠ & 4+♦ Either 3♠ or a control showing 4♣ seems appropriate from North indicating slam interest so I guess South's reticence to bid 4♣ is the issue if you're hoping to land in 6♠. Personally, I bid 4♣ as North as that would show both a ♠ honour and ♣ control.

For me 3♠ is fractionally the wrong bid for North's hand. If South has the strength to invite game then you are OK, but you may as well bid 2♠ and wait for the invite. This improves the probabilities in the long run. However, having bid 3♠ and had the 3NT serious slam try shown I would end up in 6♠

Thanks for clarifying - It sort of got stuck in my mind that North was a minimum opener when in fact they are in my terms 'distributionally strong'. I also play KI5 so 3♠ means something different to me. I think my posts still stand although obviously not 18+hcp in the first one A North hand such as below would cause me to bid 3♠. It has the has my required 5.5 MLT once revalued so probability wise it would fit. KQxx AJxxx x Axx South still bids 3NT and North still bids 4NT, but the fact that Gazzilli is played doesn't factor for me until it comes to deciding on small versus grand slam.

Apparently so I guess I'm struggling with the raise to 3♠ which may well go down if South has 6 total points.

With all controls I would move to 4NT given partner has a strong hand. 4♠ would deny a top 3 honour for me. In practice I would bid 3NT to show only 1 of the top 3 honours given South introduced ♠

Why show 4♥ when your 1NT presumably denies 4♥? If 3451 partner has you covered as at worst he will have 4♣ If 1453 2♣ may be the better contract. So either Pass or 2♣

Sounds like I need a new DD probability generator or time to sit down and do the maths myself

Yep, but the Queen can be taken from either side even with a 3-1 break so the probability is higher

3♠ says to me I have an MLT of 5.5 or better or 18+hcp with a flat hand. With 6.5 MLT this would be a clear serious 3NT for me if that's what I played. I play KI5 so my initial response would have been 2♣ and opener would have shown ♠ with 2♥ (4♠ Min+)

I've just run the DD probability generator which gives a 92% chance of the slam presumably because opener's control count is above expected. Maybe not such a long shot after all?

That makes sense and removes the risk a of a pass with a minimum. Perhaps I could redefine fit jumps as either 5+ with 4 card support (I think this may be standard) or 4144 showing the singleton

This was a simple auction and I guess my bid would have been 4♥ rather than 3NT to indicate mild slam interest; rather than a direct 4♦ bid over 2NT. [hv=pc=n&s=s82hkjt854dj43ck7&n=saj4ha32dakq8cq62&d=n&v=b&b=13&a=2np3dp3hp3np4hppp]266|200[/hv] Would I be too optimistic if aiming for a slam given hand revaluation takes us into slam territory? Regardless it was a good evening with topping the rankings making it a pleasing session.

I was back for F2F bridge for the first time since the initial lockdown and with my usual partner suffering from flu arranged a pick-up partner. Never having played together we fixed on playing SAYC rather than the more traditional club ACOL We had two slams available to us during the evening. This was the first.[hv=pc=n&s=sakj874hat87dk85c&w=sthkqjda43cqj7543&n=sq653h2dqj92ckt96&e=s92h96543dt76ca82&d=s&v=b&b=7&a=1s2c3hp4hp4sp6sppp]399|300[/hv] My 3♥ bid was meant to show a mixed raise mini-splinter, but in the absence of agreements I guess it was interpreted as a GF ♥ holding. I naturally rebid 4♠ over 4♥ and we ended perhaps fortuitously in 6♠ for the only made slam of the evening How would others have interpreted 3♥ and what would have been a more convincing auction?

If you don't play MAFIA then I read North as being 56 in the blacks South has denied 4♠ by failing to X 1♥. 5♣/♠ should be makeable with slam as an outside chance. I pass 4♠ or bid 4NT (2 keycards) if taking a risk. A 5♦ response shows the control I'm looking for denying AK♣, with the requisite keycards/Q♠ for the slam try. 6♠ follows

We tend to play the NT takeout as roughly 8-14 hcp with 3♥ showing 13/14hcp and a six+ card suit. West's 2♠ will show 5♠ and could be worthless to about 11hcp. X will be 15+hcp-we play an adapted version of the overcall structure. Playing standard I start with a X

This is a hand where EW can make 5M or E 3NT/W 4NT yet out of 16 tables no one bid and made game. The single 4♠ bidder went down 2 and half of the tables didn't move beyond the 2 level. Our own auction stopped in 3♥ with 9 tricks made P-(1♣)-1NT takeout-(P)-2♠-(P)-3♥-(P)-P-(P) I was wondering what approach bids & make game or was partner too cautious?[hv=pc=n&w=sq8764hq6dk32ckt7&e=sa32hajt975da98c6&d=w&v=0&b=8&a=p1c?]266|200[/hv]

So I guess the 1st negative is 2♦ or waiting.😁

Perhaps 3♦ would have been better, then at least the BOT can add 22/23 plus 4 to realise it needs to bid again. How many diamonds did it have?