luis

Yes, so 3N is the only right bid in my opinion. with a slammish hand, cuebid if you have any control, without control but still want to try slam, bid 4D. After south 3N, North still will try 4N to invite and south should reject and play there. I agree with 3♥ by south being an overbid. Just bid 3 NT. Mike :D So you will want to play 3NT when pd has: AQJxx xx AKxx xx Down 2 on a heart lead. You win 4s. Or: Axxxx x AKxx Axx Down 3 but this time you only win 6d, don't worry. mmmmm.....

I wonder what kind of relief do you plan to get with this one Ben... With Axxx,Kxx,Axx,Jx we have agreed to open 1d what do you open with Axxx,Kxx,Axx,Jx ? :-)

The 3h bid is worth a debate. I thik that after 1s-2d;3d responder is always endplayed in the bidding. 3s is delayed 3 card support. 3NT should show something balanced with stoppers in the remaining suits. But now what do you do if you have a) A slamish hand :D A minimum with problems in clubs c) A minimum with problems in hearts 3h is the only bid below 3NT so with b or c you bid 3h and now what? Imagine North is 5-3-4-1 or 5-1-4-3 does he bid 3NT wiht the 1st hand or the second one? What about 5-2-4-2? What about a 6-1-3-3 hand with horrible spades ? Are we going to conclude that after 1M-2d;3d the auction gets impossible ? That's scaring.....

74.17% ? If the spade ace is offside you are down one automatically. If they lead a heart you need the hK onside and the sA onside or (KT of hearts onside). I think is a rather horrible slam not vulnerable.

[hv=d=n&v=n&n=s98732haj9dakjcaj&s=sk6hq4dqt9432ckq3]133|200|Scoring: IMP[/hv] Playing 2/1 where a 1M-2x;2N rebid shows doubleton in pd's suit. The bidding was: 1s - 2d 3d - 3h 4c - 4s 6d Lead: a trump, declarer pulled trumps (2-2) and played a spade to the K, down 1. I want to know your opinions about the bidding, is this a good slam to play? Can you avoid it ? Should you ?

1) Is north too good for splinter? Depends absolutely on partnership agreements. With my current pd a splinter is done with honors in the long suits (AK or Q) and about 11-14 hcp. So it's easy to know if you have to continue and how. So with Jxx of spades I wouldn't splinter. 2) Should south bid 4NT directly Absolutely. He only needs AK of hearts to have a good playable slam. or the cA and the hK. 3) What should north bid over 4♠, and would 5♦ promise a ♦ void. Over 4s I think that 5d does indeed promise a void. He can't bid 5c with just the Q so I think that 5h is correct. If north has what the parnership has agreed for a splinter (and I suposse he has) I think 100% of the blame goes to south. 4s is a bid that doesn't have any purpose, because the only thing that south needs to do is ask for keycards. Again when poor north is unable to cuebid clubs what does he have for a splinter? South should realize that AK of hearts is a certanty and bid the slam even after his doubtful 4s start. Luis

1) 2H if pd bids 3d I bid 3s. If pd bids something else I bid 4s 2) 3h, check if pd can cooperate with a heart stopper. I think I will sell out for 4d otherwise. Passing 3d is just too risky. Pd can have Qxxxxx of diamonds and the hA. 3) Looks like pd has a bad 4-2-5-2 hand. But I really think that we have some chances for a slam. So I think I will bid 4d and see if can cuebid in hearts. I'm not sure where are we going to stop after 4d but I can't pass 3N with this hand.

I played 3/5 (2/4 vrs NT) for a logn time. Then switched to an Italian system of leads. And now I'm playing 2/4 both vrs suit and vrs NT. In my experience the italian leads were superior by a large margin to 3/5 or 2/4 leads. But you need a pd that wants to play that. Between 2/4 or 3/5 I think that 2/4 is better since it's more clear when you have something in the suit and when not and you don't have to waste your top card when you lead from nothing, sometimes those Tens and Nines are important spots. About the italian leading system I used (not sure if this is Roman or what) Low = Show interest in the suit being lead High = Denies interest in the suit being lead Odd = Denies interest in the suit of the same color (suggests range/alternate) Even = Denies interest in the suit of the same range (suggests color/alternate) Example: If they are playing 4s If you lead the h9 - Denies interest in hearts - Denies interest in diamonds (colors) so you have something in clubs Believe me it works very very well. - We only gave count in cash out situations - It does give information to declarer but that's not so tragic with the info the defense has. This was combined with a revolving preferential method that was used instead of count/interest. But maybe I can describe this later :-) Luis

Hi Luis, I think you misread some things... North passes because he thinks it's a penalty double, while South thinks his dbl is optional. So imo NS is still playing some kind of bridge, but they misunderstood their agreements. And I can asure you, if my partner considers my Dbl as optional, we'll find 6♣ or 6♠ without much troubles. To bad he was tired after 80 games (marathon of 100 deals)... I really doubt NS are playing any form of bridge. Your double is terrible no matter if it is optional, penalty, takeout, support for spades, or whatever.

I have a nice story about "correcting" [hv=d=s&v=a&n=sakhaqt982dckjt32&s=sjt98432h53d62cq8]133|200|[/hv] South (me) opened 2d for reasons that escape the knowledge of mortal people. West bid 3c North decided not to double and knowing South habits decided to play in his suit so he bid 4h East doubled South "removed" to 4s And west doubled Everybody passed South fuming received the lead of the dK, dummy tabled the 6 hearts and the 5 clubs and said, I don't have spades.... but AK South said "ruff" Dummy answered "I can't ruff" Then I realized the lead was the hK not the dK, so hA, AK of spades (2-2), heart Q droppping the J, making 7 for +1390 Teammates asked "What is this slam?????"

Well I'm sure that dbl was optional even if south swears by his life that it's not. I agree that an optional double is one of the worst bids of the century but a penalty double would be just inpossible with that hand.

Quick comment: I agree completely with the general consensus that a passive lead is called for. With this said and done, are you teaching a style in which that advocates a double holding AK874 Q KQ7 AJT5 Now what's wrong with dbl?

Dbl seems to be the right bid

Open 1d and rebid 2c. If you open 2-2-4-5 hands with 13HCP with 1c then it's your problem what to do now. If you refuse to open with 4d and 5c 1d then at least rebid 2c and not 1NT. You have 9 cards in the minors and so far you showed 3.

[hv=n=skj9xxxhaxxdxcaqx&w=sqxxhxxdkjxxct753&e=stxxhjxxdqxxckxxx&s=sahkqxxxdaxxxxcxx]399|300|[/hv] If the hand is the one you suggest Ben declarer's play doesn't make any sense. Take the cA Spade to the ace Diamond ace Diamond ruff Spade king discarding a club club ruff diamond ruff club ruff Diamond ruff with the hA spade ruff Now KQ of hearts and concede the fifth diamond at the end. Some inferences: I think that my pd doesn't have the cJ because underleading a Jack againstt a slam is a very horrible idea. Even when it works. Next I think declarer is missing the hQ or a side ace because with all the aces and the hQ he would have asked for kings to play 7 Declarer doesn't have Ax of spades, he would have rised with the cA and stablish spades for discards. Declarer doesn't have 2 clubs because he would take the cA and discard a club in the sK. So why declarer played the cQ instead of low to his Jack? Maybe because he needs to conceal the cJ I think declarer is missing the hQ, pd may have the singleton hQ I can't imagine a hand where the sA or the dA is missing and declarer can still make the slam. Something is wrong in this hand. Something is wrong.

I wonder why nobody doubled 6s to prevent EW from finding the grand-slam. :-)

3h transfer to spades followed by 4NT if that is RKCB in you methods If not then 4h Texas or 4d south-african to 4s followed by 4NT RKCB in spades. If he has 4 keycards I can ask about the sQ, if he has the sQ he can also show a side suit King so we can bid 7N counting 13 tricks (7d, 3s, 2aces and a king). If he has the sQ but no side king I will just stay in 6NT. Without the sQ I think we can still ask for Kings and with two play 7. Examples playing 1430 2N - 4h (Texas) 4s - 4N (RKCB in spades) 5c - 5d If he bids 5s then 5NT asking for Kings If he bids 5h, 6c then 7NT If he bids 6s (sQ no side King) then 6NT Luis

It's hard to rule when neither side is playing bridge. NS have an ice-cold 6c, south makes a completely insane double or 3d and yet another crazy double of 3h then north assuming the double was "optional" makes an irrational pass of 3dx. EW bids are also very strange and the play in 3hx should have been extremely poor. There was missinformation because north said the double was penalty when it was "optional". There was damage, east chanced to pull 3dx because north said that south had a penalty pass. I'd rule the following: 3dx -690 for NS as the director ruled -200 for EW for not playing bridge in 3hx A procedural penalty on NS And I'd take something for my stomach. Argh!

Do I agree with 1NT? No, but then I have changed my responding scheme so that 1NT forcing never includes 3 card support, weak or strong. What next here? I have no idea, and neither will anyone else. Parnter could have two ♥ and a ♠ losers so going past 4♠ is death, or partner could have a ♥ void and a rock crusher and 7♠ is laydown. I guess I would cue-bid 4♥ in the hope this is a general slam try with one fit or the other (sort of last-train), but not sure this will be clear to parnter who might take it for an actual ♥ stopper. However, I do know how I would bid this if I was playing my way.... I would have responded 2♣ with south hand. I will not repeat all the hands it could be (in another thread), but when WEST jumps to 3♥ and my partner bids 4♦ I know that he has a void in ♥s.. Why? Because we play garrazzo 2/3 doubles on this auction. A pass over 3♥ would show 1 or 4 ♥, a double would show 2/3, and a direct bid would show a void. Now, I am in the cat bird seat facing a ♥ void. I think a nice fat blackwood or immediate 5♠ bid is in order. Now what if partner passed over 3♥, now I know singleton or four hearts. Since I am looking at two hearts, I refuse to believe it is four. However, I can double and partner will pull with one if I am worried about him having four. Or, armed with the knowledge that partner has a stiff ♥, I can go ahead and bid my 3♠ bid (like you were going to do), to show this hand. I would actually double (also 2/3 double), and partner will bid 3♠ minimum and something else with maximum and singleton ♥. Playing Garozzo doubles your pd would have bid double showing (2/3 hearts). But I wonder how does opener bid a two suiter playing Garozzo doubles? If he doesn't have a void in hearts he can't bid 4d ? How do you handle two suiters Ben? I'm interested.

[hv=d=n&v=b&s=s652h64dk762cakt2]133|100|Scoring: IMP 1s-pass-1N*-3h 4d-pass-? 1N=forcing (2/1)[/hv] Do you agree with 1NT ? South's plan was to jump to 3s next showing a limit bid with 3 trumps. Now what?

With a pickup partner, 4♣ would be too risky, too big a chance for a misbid... But the question is really more for what is the best treatment, and the assumption is you are playing with your favorite, most experienced partner (2/1 GF of course). First, I play 1m-2m as game force, so I have the luxury of using 4m here as minorwood. But many would play 4♣ as wasted hand opposite ♠ splintre and willing to signoff... so if 4♣ is not minorwood... .would they play 4♦ as minorwood or 4NT as blackwood (and if 4 either minor is minorwood, then 4NT is quantative). The next question is would you minorwood or would you cue-bid you ♥ control pointing a finger of doom at ♦s? Your partner would then need a ♦ control to move towards slam. Ben Hi Ben, Let's take your questions: I don't think 4c is dangerous. If you don't want to play 3NT you can just jump to 5c without slam interest. Playing 4m to play doesn't make sense, it's better to bid game in the minor and go down 1 reserving 4m to investigate slamish hands. When 4c is not minorwood I think that 4N as RKCB in clubs is logical. The only logic option is to play 4d kickback and 4NT as quantittative but imho a 4NT bid should always be RKCB when pd has just splintered. I don't think that 4h is a good bid, 4c is better to see if pd can cuebid 4d, if he can then we can ask for keycards with 4NT. The player who splinters shouldn't be the player asking for keycards because the other player is better placed to make a decision. Luis

4c forward going, I like this hand.

4NT with the balanced hand and 4s with the Acol 2 ? :-) May work. My actual 2d opening is weak in a major with 5 cards. (includes 54, 55 and some 5332 when the weather is fair) We open normal 2h/2s with 6 cards in the major.

You bid 4c and when pd "transfers" to spades with 4h you pass :-) Luis

Yes 4h show spades. Tks Free (corrected) The idea is to make opener transfer to his suit so you can play it. I prefer the "traditional" interpretation that 4H is pass or correct. Using the 4C bid to ask for opener's major gives the opponents far too many chances to enter the bidding, double for a lead, and otherwise mess arround with our auction. Furthermore, it is unclear to me that responder will always have a big balanced hand when he blasts to 4H. Why can't he have a preemptive raise in either major? You could conceivably argue that opener should bid 4H with preemptive raises and 4C with strong raises, however, allows the opponent's to complete muhc more effectively over the 2D - 4H raise. In short, I don't like this idea. [bTW, I accidentally sent this same message as a report to the moderator Please ignore the user error] Richard, You can keep 4h as pass/correct and play 4c as I described. So you can play from your side when you need. It's not only for balanced hands, can be extremely useful when you must protect an unguarded King from being crossed on the lead eXample: Qx JTx AKQxx Kx Don't you want to play 4h or 4s from your side ?