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What is 1♥-(1NT)-3♥ [hv=d=n&v=b&s=sxhkqxxdjxcqjxxxx]133|100|Scoring: MP[/hv] What do you bid with the above hand after 1♥-(1NT)? If this is a clear 4♥ bid for you then suppose you have same distribution but a limit raise (if that exists). My partner argued that 3♥ can logically not be weak when vulnerable.

In 2/1 bidding starts: 1♠-(2m)-? how do you raise partners ♠ (weak 3 card, constructive 3 card, limit 3 card, 4 card raises)? Any difference after 1♠-(2♥)-? (I guess in 'standard' 2/1 a 2♠ bid is a 3 card raise with 6-9 pts, but can be stretched to less then 6 pts.?) Do you play something similar after 1♠-(DBL)-? and 1♥-(1♠)-?

Thank you all for the answers. I did bid 1♥ - transfer to ♠ - and my partner did bid 4♠. That was DBLed and did go min 2. My partner did bid 4♠ to make and was disappointed by the dummy. He did expect more. (eg a singleton iso 2 doubletons). ...Pretty much a style thing. It wasn't a disaster as opps could make 4♥. He said that I didn't have enough for a 1 level overcall. If I can't pass with it then I should bid 2♠ weak. (I will rather pass).

I don't think that Contador needed anybody today. If he wanted he would have left the Schleck brothers behind. It is more that Armstrong and Kloden need Contador more then the other way around. Contador realised that, but not in time (He attacked and saw that Kloden was the main victim. Then he stopped his attack, but the damage to his team mate was done). That could well cost them 2nd and 3th place if the loose more time on Saturday. ...In my opinion this is also the real intention of the Schleck brothers: getting a podium place (they don't really believe they can get 1st).

[hv=d=e&v=b&s=saxxxxhxxdxxckxxx]133|100|Scoring: MP[/hv] East opens 1♣. What do you call at MP's?

[hv=d=s&v=n&n=saxxxhqt9dxcakj98&s=skhajxxxdaqxxctxx]133|200|Scoring: MP[/hv] Bidding: 1♥-2♣! 2♦!!-(DBL)-3♥!!! 3♠-4NT 5♥-6♥ 2♣=GF with ♣ or limit+ with 3c♥ 2♦=less then 15 and no 6c♥ DBL=something in ♦ 3♥=slem interest with 3c♥ 3♠=control ♠ 4NT=RKC for ♥ LHO leads ♣6. How do you play? (If you play ♣A then ♣4 will not show up...LHO started from ♣6 or ♣64 ...It is not impossible that he found a lead from ♣Q also). How do you play 6♥?

I play this as GF and play transfers after it (♠ transfer to ♣)

And back to: KQT vs xx Suitplay says that if the K looses to the A then play the Q next. This is playing that RHO will only take the Ace with AJ doubleton? Isn't this expecting too much from opps? And if that is the best play, will RHO not always tkae the A with Ax...?

This is (almost) same as?: KTx - Qx Where you first play small to Q and if the Q holds finesse the T. For LHO it doesn't really matter to take the Ace if he has had?

KQT vs xx You first play small to the Q, that holds. Is there any difference in playing small to T or to K next? (suitplay says play small to K, but I don't see that small to T is any worse. If 2 plays are the same is suitplay only showing one?)

I don't think so V vs NV. Is that related to opener? or to 'us'? (I always thought to 'us', so here we are V and they are NV). What is the concensus on BBF, seems like pretty basic.

Also seems like 3NT cannot be a reasonable bid or agreement with 16HCP balanced unless your 1S-2S promised 8+ or some constructive raise. 2S showed good 8 to 10

Thanks all for the replies. ..seems like 3NT should be passed very rarely.... Only with a 3334 hand.

Partner had: x xxxxx xxxx Qxx 2♠ made +1 as RHO did have 4 clubs from the A and after my Club bid it was easy for him to hold up Club A when his partner played ♣ and keep the 4th club. .... but if bidding would have been 1S-(p)-p-(DBL)-4S then it would probably have made against these opps.

[hv=d=s&v=b&s=sakqjxxxhxdxckjxx]133|100|Scoring: MP[/hv] MP's against below average opps at a club game. This is how I bid it (I hoped they would DBL 2S or 3S :) ): 1♠-(Pass)-pass-(DBL) 2♣-(DBL)-Pass-(Pass) 2♠-All Pass What would you do different?

So would I. For me, 3NT after a raise shows a solid 6/7 card suit, no singleton and some stoppers outside. This is impossible in view of the fact that you hold AJx for the raise. good point, so I guess it is 18/19 5332.....still dont care.....removing to 4s to not look even more foolish than nature intended when he has qX of hearts. 3NT is a suggestion to play. Can be a balanced hand with 5-card S and 16 pts. My partner told me that he will not bid 3NT with a lot of aces, but more with something like: KQxxx=KTx=KQJ=Qx

you play constructive raises and bidding goes (opps pass) 1S-2S-3NT What are factors that favor a pass? - MP's/IMPS's - Max/min - Aces/Jacks? - Concentrated values? - good/bad 'trumps' ... example: [hv=d=n&v=n&s=sajxhxxdxxxcqt876]133|100|Scoring: MP[/hv] For your methods this is a (sub-)minimum 2S raise, but you started with 2S and bidding was: 1S-2S-3NT Why do you pass or bid 4S?

I was logged in in BBO today and was thrown out without warning and the new version was installed (Probably I got a message then, don't remember). I was not at a table, so I didn't mind.

I'm not sure about that. There are more controls in cycling.

My vote: Contador will win and Armstrong will end second

For me: 1♣-1♦-2NT is a balanced hand and 18-19 HCP. 1♣-1♦-2♠ shows a 5-4 (unbalanced). Therefor the first bidding does not deny a 4-card Major. Any bid after the 2NT is GF. (I even play that 2NT is GF, but this can be passed with a sub-minimum). I think that most of the above is standard? I play transfers after 2NT jump and would bid 3♣ here. Without transfers I bid 3♠.

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Suppose signalling is important on 2nd trick. My partner suggested: - If it is not clear that opening lead suit should be returned or not. AND - partner plays a new suit in 2nd trick for which attitude does not make sense. THEN Play Lavinthal. (Instead of lavinthal it is also possible to encourage 2nd suit, which discourages 1st suit and asks 3th suit; Or discourage 2nd suit, which asks 1st suit).

[hv=d=n&n=sxhakxdaxxcajxxxx&w=sxxxxhqxxxxdtxcxx&e=sakqjxhjxdjxxckqx&s=stxxh864dkqxxxc84]399|300|Scoring: MP[/hv] 1♣-(1♠)-Pass-(3♠)-All pass South leads ♣8 and North takes ♣A and returns ♥A. What is the best way for South to signal if he started with a singleton ♣? Do you have agreements here to signal that you want a ♣ or a ♦ return if it is clear that a ♥ continuation cannot be good (is it clear enough here)? PS: on the 1st trick we play obvious switch