kgr

I tried all the hands and I think the crashes were in 2 different hands after having navigated some time in them. My BBO-id is kgr. After the crash a microsoft send report is produced. If you are interested then I can try to reproduce this (I need some more work on the level 5 hands :) ). Tell me what you need.

Viewing the free Bridge Master deals I had 2 crashes of BBO yesterday.

[hv=d=w&v=b&n=sak96ht54dak53cqj&s=sqj5hakq987dt9ck5]133|200|Scoring: IMP[/hv] 1NT-2D 2H-3C-(DBL) 3NT-4H All pass Pickup. SAYC and no special agreements. Opps are silent except the DBL of 3C. Who is responsible for not reaching 6H?

[hv=d=e&s=sxxhqxxxdajxxxcxx]133|100|Scoring: MP[/hv] RHO opens 1S, LHO bids 1NT and that comes back to you: (1S)-p-(1NT)-p (p)-?? MP's At what vulnerability (if ever) you DBL planning to correct 2C to 2D?

agree....only i would bid 2S

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Pass at IMP's. (I would bid 2NT at MP') Maybe it is even better to pass (or DBL) at MP's. Distributions could well be something like: RHO: 4=1=4=4 LHO: 3=6=3=1 CHO: 4=4=2=3 We: 2=2=4=5 If opps open 1D with 4=4 minors then something like: RHO: 4=1=3=5 LHO: 3=6=3=1 CHO: 4=4=3=2 We: 2=2=4=5 If opps play WJS 4-7 and open 1D with 4=4 minors then something like: RHO: 3=1=4=5 LHO: 4=6=2=1 CHO: 4=4=3=2 We: 2=2=4=5 If opps play WJS 4-7 and open 1D with 4=5 minors then something like: RHO: 4=1=3=5 LHO: 4=6=2=1 CHO: 3=4=4=2 We: 2=2=4=5 => It's not sure that we have a fit and a 9-card fit is even less sure. I pass at IMP's. At MP's it seems best to pass or to DBL (and bid 3C if partner would bid 2S).

I wondered if you could bid this way with 1=4=4=4 and around 17 pts. At MP's 2D scores worse then 1NT so maybe 2D should show extra's here, inviting partner to bid 2NT or 3D with 8-9 pts?

This problem was presented to me yesterday at the bar: [hv=d=s&v=n&n=skxxhxxxxdqjcaqtx&s=saxxhakdaxxxcj9xx]133|200|Scoring: IMP 1NT-3NT[/hv] You have to play 3NT after opening 1NT. LHO starts with ♥Q. How do play this?

No Walsh-type responses

Suppose you are both World class players. You play matchpoints. You agreed to open 5=5=4=2 (short clubs). And with 4-4 in the minors you open 1 Club. You play 1NT 15-17 and the rest is common sense. Bidding goes (opps silent): MP's / All Vul 1C-1D 1H-1NT 2D What hand do you think opener has?

Why is that? Is there some logic in this or is this an agreement you have?

Your partner opens the bidding with 1H or 1S. You play 5-card Majors and not 2/1. How do you show support for the M (3+ or exactly 3) and good 5-card suit at the side? 1H-1S 1NT-3H/4H ?? 1H-2C 1D-3H/4H ?? When do you show this? Do you need a specific point range? How dou you investigate slem after this start? Should opener have an honnour in responders 5-card or is it more important to have controls (1st control?) in the side suits?

4♠ for me. I wonder how bad this is ;)

You play 5 card M (2/1 promises 10+ and not GF!) If you play that 2NT by opener after 2/1 by responder is 15+ (GF) what are the disadvantages? With a minimal hand opener has to bid: 1D-2C-2D even if opener only has a 4-card D (eg 3=4=4=2). And then responder has to bid 2NT if he has short diamonds, even if he has no stop in one of the majors (eg with 3=3=3=4) and NT would play better by the opener. Questions: - Is it a good agreement to play 2NT by opener GF (not playing 2/1 GF)? - Are there solutions for the issues mentioned above? Thanks, Koen

(1x)-p-(p)-? : balance We agreed here that bids borrow a King from partner: - 1NT: 12-14 - DBL: 9+ - DBL and bid NT later: 15-17??? - DBL and bid other suit later: 5-card and 13+ ??? - 2x (cue): not in balancing seat we play this as 5-5 in highest suits. Is this still useful in balancing seat? - 2NT: still usefull to show 2 lowest? (I tried to find an existing treat on this subject but couldn't find it.)

Do you prefer 'serious 3NT' or 'not serious 3NT'? Are there any advantages of the one above the other? Maybe an advantage of 'not serious 3NT' is that you can stop in 3NT iso going to 5m?

Other example: 1H-2C-2D-3H You agreed that this is: Responder showed 5+card Clubs with at least 2 of the 3 top honours and 3+card H and GF with slem interest. - Will you always bid 3S to show a control (1st or 2nd) or only if you have extras?

Suppose you have shown a limited hand and partner shows a sinleton and starts cueing afterwards. Will you always cue or only if your hand improved with the singleton? What is the best treatment? eg bidding goes: 1NT-3C-3D-3H with: 1NT: 15-17 3C: 4=4=4=1 3D: sets D as trump 3H: 1st or 2nd control Diamond You now have a control in Spade. Do you suggest to always bid it or only if you have a good hand opposite the singleton (eg xxx of clubs)?

What if you need 1 more trick to defeat 6S and you have as East: ....Jx ?x....Qxx ....AK???? or ....Jx ?x....Q9x ....AK???? Declarer immediatly plays the J. Do you cover? These questions came from a team match where opp was in 6S and already lost a trick. And this was situation in Spades: ....Jx Qx....xxx ....AKTxxx (I don't remember who had the 9). Declarer played the J from dummy and when this was not covered he played the K and A, dropping the Q and making her contract. The argument was that she didn't think East had the Q because he didn't cover the J. PS: We were defeated by 25-4. Mostly because opps were simply better (at our level this means making less mistakes), but I don't think this was one of the good play...except if it was very good table feel.

Declarer is in 6S and already lost one trick. From the bidding you know that declarer has a 6-card suit S. You are sitting East and declarer plays the A from his hand ....Jx ?x....Qxx ....A????? crosses to dummy and plays the J, you can assume that declarer has the K in his hand: ....J x....Qx ....K???? Should you cover or not? - If not: how shoud declarer play with AKxxxx? - If yes: If the Q does not come over the J should declarer play the K now from AKTxxx (assuming East does not have the Q if not covered, and playing West for Qx)?

You agreed with your partner that a 1NT overcall is same as your strong 1NT opening with double stop, but in balancing position it is a King less. (1x)-p-(p)-1NT ; 1NT is 12-14. And (2M)-2NT is also 15-17 with good stop. Question: Do you also lower requirement for NT in balancing: (2M weak)-P-(P)-2NT

[hv=d=n&v=b&n=s74hj76dkt8632c64&w=st5h9542daqckjt83&e=saj6htdj9754cq975&s=skq9832hakq83dca2]399|300|Scoring: IMP Bidding: P-(p)-1S-All pass[/hv] I asked - with the additional questions - because I tend to agree with pclayton now (maybe influenced by the bad result). With S and H 2 suiter there is not a big problem after opening 2C.

fi last one: with v=Ax=AKQ32=KQ9832 do you still open 2♣

[hv=d=n&v=b&s=skq9832hakq83dca2]133|100|Scoring: IMP 2 passes. What do you open?[/hv] If you open 2C, would you also open 2C when reversing: - Hearts and spades: 5=6=v=2 - Majors with minors: v=2=6=5 - longer clubs: v=2=5=6