kgr

To clarify: 4D is namyats and only showing Spades

[hv=d=e&s=saxxhxxxxdkxxckqx]133|100|Scoring: MP[/hv] Bidding starting with East (RHO): (1H)-p-(2H)-2S (3H)-??? Opps play a standard 5-car M system. DBL by you is still take-out oriented, but doesn't really show a fit. If you DBL, should partner always bid 3S with a minimal hand. What do you consider miinimum to bid 2S at MP's?

[hv=d=e&v=n&s=skqt9xxxhaxxxdxcx]133|100|Scoring: MP [/hv] RHO Passes. What do you open? (You play 5-card M system, 3H is transfer to 3S or something strong, 2S is Muiderberg, 4D is 8 tricks in S, 4S is 7 tricks in S ..or pass)

This was interesting. Hopes this makes me understand restricted choice better.

Sorry, but I don't understand this. You say: A priori, you have four possibilities: KQ offside K offside Q offside Both onside. This is the same as saying: KQ offside Q onside and K offside K onside and Q offside Both onside. If the first finesse fails to f.i. the K then both the 3rd and 4th possibility are eliminated giving us a 50% chance for the 2nd finesse?

After the 1st finesse lost I think this is 50%

You have agreed to lead 4th best against NT. You can't lead you long suit (bid by RhO). What is the best lead against NT from: 642 or from: Q62

thanks for the answer! I can imagine that I also would have played the 9 (seeing the T in dummy), not appreciating the potential value of it enough. I will remeber this. ...Seems like I should read a bit more about the technical (?) plays like this. Any good books about this? Koen

Thanks all for the answers. I don't remember the actual distribution, but let me try to construct one that resembles it:[hv=d=e&n=saqxxxhxxxxdxxcxx&w=sxxhaqxxdaxxcxxxx&e=skjxxxxhxxdjxxxcx&s=shkjxdkq9xxcakq9x]399|300|Scoring: MP[/hv] Bidding at our table was: (2S)-4S-4NT 5C-6H 4S was the ideal bid. It shows a Spade void and 5-5 in the minors (so 3 hearts) and 3 or 4 loosers :o ... that is what I thought. Most important lesson for me is probably not to fantasise too much about a bid. Partner should have the same fantasies then. He thought I showed 5-5 ♥ and ♣ as I could have shown the minors with 4NT. BTW: I didn't take 4NT as ace asking, but as spade values. (6H was -2, probably partner's hand was a bit better then shown)

Yes, South did hold QJxx of Spades and the ♠9 was played (declarer holding AK8x). I was clearly bad here, but I wondered if it was bad most of the time.

MP/Vul vs Not You hold: void-KJx-KQ9xx-AKQ9x RHO opens 2♠ weak. What do you bid with expert pickup partner without discussion? What do you bid with your regular partner? thanks, Koen

3♠ then to show ♠control and a max with fit.

[hv=d=e&v=n&n=st4haj7dq975ca742&w=s952hk52dk3ck9653]266|200|Scoring: IMP[/hv] Bidding: p-(1♦)-p-(2♣) p-(2NT)-p-(3NT) 2♣: no 4 card M, 11+ 2NT: balanced minimum Opps are in a low point 3NT contract. You lead ♣5 (4th best) for the 2 and the Q from p (8 from declarer). Partner returns ♣T, declarer the J and you the K. Declarer holding up again. You don't want to give declarer an extra trick by returning ♣'s and decide to play ♠. You can either play the 9 or the 5. Is one generally better then the other?

Need to know more to answer this. Why did responder not transfer with 2♦? Does 3♥ show a balanced or not-balanced hand with 5-card ♥? (3NT if it shows a balanced hand by agreement) Can 3♥ be a slem invite? (3♠ shows max with ♠ control and ♥ fit) Can we have a 5-card M for opening 1NT? (3♠ is not, This should show a cue with ♥ fit then).

Opps play 3NT and you know from the bidding that declarer has 3 or 4 card ♠. You play ♠ from ♠962 and dummy has: ♠T3 What ♠ do you play? (FYI: This was playing IMP's and we first took 2 tricks in ♣'s, but couldn't continue ♣ without giving declarer an additional trick and no other suit was more appealing. ...Probably continue ♣ was better anyway as it would have developed a 5th ♣ in the South hand).

Hello, What do you consider the best - and not too complex - defence against T-Walsh? 1♣-(p)-1♦-? (1♦ transfer to ♥) 1♣-(p)-1♥-? (1♥ transfer to ♠) thanks, Koen

[hv=d=n&n=saqxxhjxdxxckjxxx&w=skjxhk8xxdajxxxca&e=st9xxhqxdkqxc8xxx&s=sxxhat9xxdxxxcqxx]399|300|Scoring: IMP[/hv] Level: Intermediate/adv (adv- ?). Bidding: P-(p)-2H-(DBL) P-(2S)-P-(3D) P-(3H)-P-(3NT) Pass 2H: Muiderberg, but in 3th hand not allowed to call it Muiderberg. It is something like that, but can variate. Play: - North leads ♥J for Q, A and low. - South plays ♥T ducked by East. - South now plays his top ♠ (the 8 or 7) for low, Q and low - North returns a passive ♦ What are the mistakes here? (I would appreciate if you can give points or rank the mistakes. High points for obious mistakes) - Should West take ♥K the 2nd trick? - Should South return ♣ trick 2 or 3? - Should North return ♣ trick 4?

RHO has 5+card H with HK and DA. 6C will make on a squeeze.

[hv=d=s&n=sahjxdkxxcat9xxxx&s=sxhaqxxdqxxcqjxxx]133|200|Scoring: MP[/hv] These were both hands with the (stange but informative) bidding at another table: (At our table opps played 5S) 1C-(P)-2D-(2H) P-(P)-5C-(DBL) 5D-(P)-6C-(DBL) The lead was a small H , J in dummy for King of RHO and Ace of declarer.

Thanks all for the answers. For me it is interesting to play count for the following 2 reasons: - It learns me to count :P - I play in a weaker field. So rather partner then opps will read the count. But maybe attitude is still more intersting then? Why is count (eg 1/3/5) leading at trick one good and is attitude leading at trick 2 and following better?

MP's Your hand: A=Jx=Kxx=AT9xxxx Bidding: P-(3S)-4C-(4S)- 5C-(P)-P-(5S)- P-(P)-?? I made the 4C bid and partner will think this is sub-minimal for this bid at MP's. Is your partner's pass forcing / Would it if he was not a passed hand (if RHO had opened the bidding with 3S)?

Suppose you play Obvious switch combined with suit preference in trick 2 and following. Does this suit preference also apply when you return a suit? You partner leads a low club for your Ace. You now return a low diamond, eg D2. (Your leads are 3/5th). Is this D2 normally??: - 3th/5th? - promising something (3th/5th only on opening lead) - suit preference for clubs?

MP's; None Vul You have A=Jx=Kxx=AT9xxxx Partner starts the bidding with a pass: p-(3S)-?? what call do you prefer?

Additional OS question: Seems like after trick one suite preference is played most of the time. But does it make sense to play it more then one card?

A couple of tips that I hope as you learn "os" will help: 1) Keep in mind if not playing a forced card then high says continue, low says shift at trick one 99.9+% 2) In suit contract think partner bid suit or your bid suit is os if not lead otherwise dummies weakest 3 card side suit almost always. 3) In NT contract think partners bid suit or your bid suit is os if not lead otherwise dummies shortest suit, very often. 4) think suit pref in trump suit and starting at trick two very often.... 5) think count is very very rare...most common is when in a hold up situation to help out partner. If you are used to o/e as first discard it can be played along with "os" Good luck. Yes, That's what I play as OS and we have these rules. But it is more difficult and it asks more energie to correctly apply them at the table. F.i.: We had an auction like this. 1C-(P)-P-(DBL) P-(2C)-P-(2H) P-(3H)-P-(4H) Rem: 1C can be 2-card and 2C was natural. Partner leads diamond A and I have Club K. I encouraged because I forgot that rule E (see below) is only for declarer and not for Dummy. ==== extract from our rules: ==== Negatives ..... (E) The Obvious Shift is never a natural suit bid by declarer. Positives (1) The opening leader's bid suit is the Obvious Shift. .... ==== Suppose now that 2C was bid by declarer on the way to 4H. You have to be sure that 2C was bid naturally. So, possibly you have to ask before following the suit. It is probably all following some simple rules, but it is definitly asking more energie then simple high-low.