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Everything posted by civill
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4♠ !
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2NT for INV or 3NT if it were 10HCP+.
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In practice,2level suit competition may be as weak as 2/3 level preemptive open; but it should be stronger with 5-4 two-suiter.It's better to have open strength especially for 2♠ competition. 2NT:It should be strong up to strong 1NT open strength if it were strong balanced hand;(strong 1NT vs weak 1NT) 3Y:almost game force or preempts with 3suiter; dbl:strong up the opp's open 1NT with other shapes;
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I agree to Arrows' hand evaluation.
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IMO,the best is criss-cross ruffing between ♠ & ♦
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1,If you and your PD bargain on non cuebid for responding to T/O double,The sequence "1D-X-P-2D" just means advancer's diamond is better and/or longer than opener's; 2,If advancer's 2D means a responsive double hand as to responder's bidding,then it's obvious that PD has no stopper in Diamond.
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Naturally,I don't think they are cuebids;Othrewise,who is capable to interpret the further cuebid? IMO,it's just a type of freak distribution deal.
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1NT opening with good 5 card major is rare, and then only [1NT-7NT] is the best.
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There are many good chances for the small slam: 1,♥ distribution is not freak ,or not short at east; 2,♠ distribution is 3-3; 3,♦K and ♦Q not both at west; 4,?
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IMO 1♥ instead of 1♦ responding to 1♣ is better,then what's your next bid? [1♣ - 1♥][2♥/(3♣)/?
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Three legs are capable to support a round table;but most tables have four legs!
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1♦ then 1♠ ? Almost impossible!
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If the responder bid 1NT instead of 1♦,the game is more possible to reach as below: [1♣-1NT] [2♣-3♣] [3NT-//]
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After RHO's opening,the player who has 22hcps should keep(even force) their own biddings on,if the deal were not double dummy.
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3. [hv=d=s&v=n&n=skq108xxxhqd1087ck10&w=s97xh9xxdk9xcaq87&e=sjhk108xdxxcjxxxxx&s=saxhaj7xxdaqjxxc9]399|300|Scoring: IMP S W N E 1H p 4S p 6S pass all Open lead Dx,N-6S-1[/hv] Another room: S W N E 1H p 1S p 2D p 4S pass all The same open lead, North's 4S+1; Is it the problem of brake system?
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2. [hv=d=e&v=e&n=s107hqxxxdj10xcqxxx&w=saqj8xxh7dq9xca97&e=s9xxh10xxda87ck108x&s=skxhakj98dkxxxcjx]399|300|Scoring: IMP S W N E ------p 1N 2D p 2H X 2S 3H 3S pass all Open lead DJ,W-3S+1;[/hv] Another room: S W N E --------p 1H 1S 2H 2S 3D 3H p 4S pass all Same open lead,West's 4S made.
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When and where to brake?There are more cases at the Clubs tournaments: 1. [hv=d=s&v=b&n=saxxxha987djxcaj9&w=sq98xhxxda107xcqxx&e=skjxhjxdq8xck8xxx&s=s107hkq10xxdk9xxc107]399|300|Scoring: IMP S W N E p p 1C p 1H p 2H p p p Open lead S8,2H+1[/hv] Another room: S W N E p p 1C p 1H p 2S p 4H pass all Open lead Sx ,4H-1.
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It seems that ♥s are stickers.And here is the fullhand:[hv=d=e&v=b&n=saxhxxxdkxxxxxckx&w=skjxxhxxdaq10xcq10x&e=sxxxha10djxxcajxxx&s=sq10xxhkqjxxxdcxxx]399|300|Scoring: IMP Opening lead ♥x.East gets the first trick,returns ♥10. How many tricks could you get?[/hv]
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Good design,ever seen somewhere.
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I also think South should bid 2♥,but actually both rooms' south pass,One is: S W N E --------p P 1D P 1S 2H 2S 3H P 4H P P X XX P P P I think East's 1♠ response has changed the sequence of bidding.Even 4♥XX may be not reasonable,but how about 4♥?Is it only an application of LOTT? Another is : S W N E --------p P 1S P 2C 2H 2S 3H P P P
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I suggest that we firstly discuss on bidding,are there enough good reasons to bid 3♥,but not 4♥XX. Later,I'll post the whole deck.Thank you in advance!
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[hv=d=e&v=b&n=saxhxxxdkxxxxxckx&s=sq10xxhkqjxxxdcxxx]133|200|Scoring: IMP The result is S-4♥XX-2,another room is 3♥-1. Could you image the sequence of bidding?[/hv] Clubs Match.The obvious difference is that one west opens 1♠,another opens 1♦ with responding by 1♠.What's your opinion?
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Natural understandings.
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1NT or 2♥.If 1NT is not forcing,then raise is better.
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It's just a type of "Gambling" bidding,Only once Partnership or fragile relationship. As we always say,"Don't lose reasons,even lose the tournament". Any more reasonable?It must be treated by TD,even by appeal committee!
