aawk

First step is to agree what 2s or refusal of the transfer means. 1nt - 2♥ ? 2♠ = no other bid possible 2nt = maximum 4(5) card ♠ 2+ card ♥ no cue in ♥ (cue in ♣/♦) 3♣ = maximum 4(5) card ♠ 2+ card ♣ no cue in ♣ (cue in ♦/♥) 3♦ = maximum 4(5) card ♠ 2+ card ♦ no cue in ♦ (cue in ♣/♥) 3♠ = maximum 4(5) card ♠ (2 side suits without a cue) a cue being A or K after a 2♦ transfer 2nt shows maximum 4(5) card ♥ 2+ card ♦ no cue in ♦ (cue in ♣/♠) 1nt - 2♥ 2♠ - 3♦ (slam invite or better at least 5-4 in ♠/♦) ? 3♠ = 3(4+) card ♠ 2-3(4) card ♦ 3nt = 2 card ♠ 3 card ♦ or a minimum with 2 card ♠ 4 card ♦ 4♣ = 4+ card ♦ cue in ♣ 4♦ = 4+ card ♦ no cue in ♣ 4♥ = on agreement asking aces (best to use RKC) 4♠ = 3(+) card s no aces or on agreement a maximum of 2 cues 4nt = asking aces (best to use RKC) 1nt - 2♥ 2nt/3♣/3♦ - ? 3♥ = retransfer no other bid possible or needed 3♠ = slam forcing with at least Kx(+) in ♥/♣/♦ no other bid needed 3nt = on agreement Q of trump with KQ(+) in ♥/♣/♦ rest = cue with KQ(+) in ♥/♣/♦ Pick an choose what you like.

All depends what 2♣ means if it is stayman being invite or better (opposite a 12-14 1nt at least 10 HCP) west double must be penalty. Playing it as take out without the option for east to pass is a strange agreement in my opinion because we hold at least 22 HCP. If 2♣ can be less than a invite (garbage stayman) then west double could be (on agreement) take out and east pass is dangerous (3♣ made is to costly) and 3♥ would be my bid.

Without any agreements it is hard to show your both minors. If you play 2♠ and 2nt as transfer to ♣ and ♦ there is a way. 2s is a transfer for ♣ and 3 way forcing (A) weak with a 6+ card ♣ (B) slam invite or better with a 6+ card ♣ © slam invite or better with a 5+ card ♣ and a 5+ card above being ♦, ♥ or ♠ 2nt is a transfer for ♦ and 3 way forcing (A) weak with a 6+ card ♦ (B) slam invite or better with a 6+ card ♦ © slam invite or better with a 5+ card ♦ and a 5+ card above being ♥ or ♠ After partners respond : 1nt - 2♠ 2nt - ?? 3♣ = weak to play (A) 3♦ = slam invite or better at least 5-5 in ♣/♦ © 3♥ = slam invite or better at least 5-5 in ♣/♥ © 3♠ = slam invite or better at least 5-5 in ♣/♠ © 3nt = weak to play with AK, AQ or KQ in ♣ (A) 4♣ = slam forcing 6+ card ♣ (B) 1nt - 2♠ 3♣ - ?? pass = weak to play (A) 3♦ = slam invite or better at least 5-5 in ♣/♦ © 3♥ = slam invite or better at least 5-5 in ♣/♥ © 3♠ = slam invite or better at least 5-5 in ♣/♠ © 3nt = slam invite 6+ card ♣ (B) 4♣ = slam forcing 6+ card ♣ (B) After 2nt as transfer for ♦ the same bidding methods are used.

Holding a 5-6 pattern with the 6 card being the lower suit you have to agree how strong it must be to bid your 5 card twice revers. To me it's 17+ HCP and 4 LTC so I would open 1♠. Holding 18 HCP I can understand a 1♣ openings bid but with a extreme pattern just valuing your hand on the HCP count could get you into trouble, with two kings both in singletons is a good example (33 % of your points are badly placed). Could a 1♠ openings bid get you into more trouble than 1♣ ?. Yes but it is just 1 board and with any agreement (or convention) you have to keep track if it worked or not and adapt if needed.

Holding a 5-6 pattern with the 6 card being the lower suit you have to agree how strong it must be to bid your 5 card twice revers. To me it's 17+ HCP and 4 LTC so I would open 1♠. Holding 18 HCP I can understand a 1♣ openings bid but with a extreme pattern just valuing your hand on the HCP count could get you into trouble, with two kings both in singletons is a good example (33 % of your points are badly placed). Could a 1♠ openings bid get you into more trouble than 1♣ ?. Yes but is just 1 board and with any agreement (or convention) you have to keep track if it worked or not and adapt if needed.

North denied a 4 card ♠ and south is marked with a 0-4 card ♠ (otherwise he would not pass on 1nt or would open 1♠ instead of 1♥) so partner has at least 4 ♠ and a 5 card is still possible. Just the fact he did not give a overcall does not change that. You got 10 HCP and both opponents bid so west hand is likely not worth a overcall.

If you don't have a obvious lead use the Sherlock leads. First look what not to lead and what suit remains is most likely the best lead. From the bidding we can deduce that partner holds a 4+ card ♠ and north most likely holds a long or both minors. Playing for IMPs a attacking lead is better than a passive lead. A ♥ lead is out of the question. And 3 suits remain. Leading ♦ from Q9xx could kill the 9 and reduce the chance of 2 ♦ tricks and after seeing the dummy we could always decide to attack the ♦ in a later stage. And 2 suits remain. Leading ♣ from Axxx is bad if north holds a 5+ card and we play for IMPs so trying to set 1nt is our goal. And the ♠ suit remains. Holding Qx trying to find your partner long suit it's better to start with the Q. Being deceptive leading a small ♠ is a tactic that works better in MP play.

You can make any agreement (good or bad) with your partner and if opponents ask about the difference between a 2♣ or 3♣ raise you have to explain that. And if opponents (during or after the board is finished) are not satisfied they can call the director.

Trump lead against a doubled part score is most likely the best action, because partner didn't and lead the ace of ♦ it looks he also holds the king of ♦ and a 5-5 pattern in north is most likely. So a positive signal in ♦ is called for. For giving signals a golden rule is that it cannot cost a trick and if partner only holds the ace playing the ten (which you already felt) would be wrong. The choice you have to make is another example why playing low as positive will solve problems like these. Best argument for playing low as positive is that with high cards you can make tricks so why waste them giving a positive signal.

If your fear pre-empts by opponents include a weak hand into your 2♣ openings bid. For example you can choose between a 6 card ♦, any 4441 5440 pattern or at least 5-4 in the majors. I prefer the 6 card ♦ because with the other 2 options you loose 2♥ and 2♠ after a 2♦ relay to show a game forcing hand. After 2♣ your responses are : 2♦ = relay (no other bid possible) 2♥/2♠/3♣ = good 5+ card and willing to play in 3♦ if partner is weak 2nt = forcing 15+ HCP

After intervention with a fit in partners major always support if you can. Holding 10 LTC (11 - 1 for extra trump) I would bid 2♠ (on agreement showing a fit with 9-10 LTC) and leave any other action (if needed) to my partner. Raising to 3♠ or even 4♠ depends on agreed supporting style with your partner. Passing just gives opponents a extra level to show the strength of their hand. Another good agreement is that first passing and then support shows defending values and interest to double opponents.

Nope. Check it again and you will see. After overtaking T of ♠ the defence draw 3 times trump (being 2 tricks for EW) west will make A of ♣ and trump another ♣ (2 tricks), A and K of ♥ and trump a ♥ (3 tricks). To me that makes 8 tricks for the leader. So to quote you : check it and you will see.

I don't get why my comment was blame assessment but if it makes you happy to blame my comment go right ahead. A trump lead against a doubled part score is recommended and if the trumps are 4441 distributed drawing trump as defence is obvious the best action whatever holdings your partner or opponents got. And overtaking the ten of ♠ followed by A of ♦ and J of ♦ still sets 3♦.

The lead was correct and revealed the trump distribution and south should take the ace and return ♦. South didn't but got a second chance and should overtake the ten of ♠ and play ♦ twice and set 3♦.

If a bidding leads to a wrong contract only look for the first bid which was wrong all other bids which followed at no relevant any more. So was the double on 4h correct. If yes then you will end up in 4♠ doubled if no then you will set 4♥. The only question remains what the arguments are to double 4h. Is it a take out double because the will make 4♥, is it a info double to get to game or is it to show you got strong hand and let partner decide to try to set 4♥ or play any other contract ? For a take out double the hand should as least hold 4-4-3 in the suits outside ♥ so can't be the right action. For a info double what does partner needs for 4s to be the right contract keeping in mind he/she already passed. If you play 2♠ as weak with a 6 card partners holdings in ♠ could be enough. If 2♠ could be weak with a 5(+) card 4♠ is not likely the best contract. For a double showing strength the question is if partners should bid 4♠ or is pass to set 4♥ the better option. I would pass 4♥ because the hand is not suited for (any sort of) double in the given bid situation.

If you open 1♠ or 2♣ west or east will bid 3♥ and the other hand has to decide what action to take. Both hands are strong enough to bid slam forcing (west is holding 2 LTC and east 6 LTC). How depends on the agreements you have made with your partner. East could give a cue with 3♠ (if agreed on), a cue with 4♦ or asking with 4nt being RBW or RKC. West could give a cue with 3♠ (if agreed on), a cue with 4♣, asking with 4nt being RBW or RKC or 5♦ being exclusion black wood. How to get to 3♥ depends on your bidding agreements. 1♠-1nt 3♣-3♦ 3♥-?? 1♠-1nt 3♣-3♥ ?? 1♠-1nt 3♥-?? 2♣-2♥ 3♥-?? 2♣-2♦ 2♠-3♦ 3♥-?? 2♣-2♦ 2♠-3♥ ?? For the second hand you got 32 HCP together and no fit and slam is only made if the h are 3-3, ten of ♠ drops or Q of ♣ drops. 1♠-2♥ 2nt (extra value)-?? East at some time will give a invite and west accepts or not (I would not).

With AK in h no other bid than 4s. You got 50% of your points in partners splinter if that is not a reason to downgrade your hand don't play splinters.

All depends if you play for MP or IMP. Playing for MP overtricks are golden and using 2nt as invite makes it harder to find a lead in a major. Playing for IMP you just want to find the best game and have room to show as many slam invites as you can.

Weak openings bids are a great weapon in disturbing opponents bidding. So how more weak bids at 2 level you can make the better it is. For example : 2♣ = being game forcing or weak with 6 card ♦ (or weak with 5-4 in majors instead of a 6 card ♦) 2♦ = being a strong nt pattern or weak with 6 card major (could also include semi game forcing with a 6+ card major) 2♥/♠ = weak 5 card major and a 4+ card minor

So if I got it right this time east can trump a h if the finesse fails. If so playing the ace is the best option to loose only 1 trick. holdings----------action west-----east-----A---J---9 KT764----0--------2---2---2 KT76-----4--------2---2---2 KT74-----6--------2---2---2 KT64-----7--------2---2---2 K764-----T--------1---1---1 T764-----K--------1---1---1 KT7------64-------1---2---2 KT6------74-------1---2---2 KT4------76-------1---2---2 K76------T4-------1---2---2 K74------T6-------1---2---2 K64------T7-------1---2---2 T76------K4-------1---1---2 T74------K6-------1---1---2 T64------K7-------1---1---2 764------KT-------1---0---0 KT-------764------1---2---2 K7-------T64------1---2---2 K6-------T74------1---2---2 K4-------T76------1---2---2 T7-------K64------1---1---2 T6-------K74------1---1---2 T4-------K76------1---1---2 76-------KT4------1---1---1 74-------KT6------1---1---1 64-------KT7------1---1---1 K--------T764-----1---2---1 T--------K764-----1---1---2 7--------KT64-----2---2---1 6--------KT74-----2---2---1 4--------KT76-----2---2---1 0--------KT764----2---2---2 failing---------------8---18--21

Based on enough communication to dummy and finessing once unless the second finesse is marked and optimal defence the following situations (32 in total) are possible. We got 3 options being playing the ace, finesse to the jack or run the 9. holdings----------action west-----east-----A---J---9 KT764----0--------2---2---2 KT76-----4--------2---2---2 KT74-----6--------2---2---2 KT64-----7--------2---2---2 K764-----T--------1---1---1 T764-----K--------1---1---1 KT7------64-------1---1---2 KT6------74-------1---1---2 KT4------76-------1---1---2 K76------T4-------1---1---1 K74------T6-------1---1---1 K64------T7-------1---1---1 T76------K4-------1---1---1 T74------K6-------1---1---1 T64------K7-------1---1---1 764------KT-------1---0---0 KT-------764------1---1---2 K7-------T64------1---1---1 K6-------T74------1---1---1 K4-------T76------1---1---1 T7-------K64------1---0---1 T6-------K74------1---0---1 T4-------K76------1---0---1 76-------KT4------1---0---0 74-------KT6------1---0---0 64-------KT7------1---0---0 K--------T764-----0---2---1 T--------K764-----1---0---1 7--------KT64-----2---1---1 6--------KT74-----2---1---1 4--------KT76-----2---1---1 0--------KT764----2---2---2 failing---------------8---6---9 So playing to the J only fails 6 out of 32 and therefore the best option IMHO. You could look it up in the bridge encyclopedia but what fun is that.

The first pass is ok. The second round I would pass because setting 2s is not a certainty.

With no agreements looks like take out for both minors most likely 5-4 because your partner already passed on 1♠. A regular partnership should have made agreements about these situations (for 2nt both minors or 2 places to play).

Partner gave a invite so 3 in a minor is to play with a 6 card and a minimum, any other agreement adds no value to find the best contract. And a bid of 3 in a major shows a 5 card with a maximum as you already suggested.