gurgistan

Partner opens 1c/1d. You have no more than 5hcp. You may or may not have a four card major but have only 3 card support or worse for the bid suit. As fair as I am aware you need 6hcp minimum and a four card suit to bid in order to respond positively. The danger is partner has <15hcp and has a fourcard major. Do we just pass as we do not have the requisite 6hcp to bid? Or do we stretch and bid something to prevent partner from playing in a probable bad fit in a minor?

Depending on your level (and your partner's). This is a playable scheme for beginners, but once you advanced you will learn that not all HCPs are equal. Thanks for your post bucky. Are you saying I need to be aware just where my HCPs are? It is a better if they are in "our" suits and worse if in the suit bid by the opponent, yes?

I have thought a little and the following schema seems better than the one I posted earlier: 0-9hcp and 3 card support = 2 level bid if mandatory 6-9hcp and 3 card support = 2 level bid if voluntary ie. over intervention 6-9hcp and 4 card support = 3 level bid 9hcp+ and 5 card support = 4 level bid without support: better suit if mandatory 2N asking for minor, where appropriate 2N with 12-13hcp over both majors 3N with 15hcp+ Could someone please comment on the viability of this proposed schema? Many thanks.

:) I had a very bad experience with a 8-10hcp balanced hand opposite my partner's 2♣ opener (some other partner) sometime ago. I bid 2N and we ended up in 6N. Only 2 tables failed to make 12 tricks out of 16 tables. Ours and a 6♠, both of which were played by South (I was South at our table). I then became convinced that having the strong hand play the contract (which is worth 1 trick) was crucial. I posted the hand in General Discussion. So yes, I am always trying to play 2♦ waiting.

I have looked at my notes and they state that with 0-12 hcp and 3 card support I should bid partner's suit. I had 9hcp and a 4 card suit. I bid his suit. I think that as he is a passed hand that he is more likely at the lower end of the Michaels scale (8-12hcp and 5-5). With his 3♠, I just see him as competing. I seem to be completely out of step with much that has been said. The schema I am using is (as responder to Michaels): Show support: 0-12 hcp with 3 card support Jump Raise: 13-15 hcp Bid Game: 16+hcp Could someone please provide a better schema? Many thanks.

[hv=d=w&v=n&s=sa943hat94dk54ck6]133|100|Scoring: IMP West as opener bids 1♠. Partner overcalls 2♦. East passes. I recognise that partner has a 5 card suit and 10 hcp. I have stoppers in all the suits and 14hcp. I think that diamonds will provide the bulk of tricks and I decide to bid 3N. It is passed out. Questions: 1. Should I have bid 2♥ or do I need a five card suit for that? 2. If I had shown hearts as a new suit, would it be forcing or non-forcing upon partner? 3. Was 3N a calculated bid or just a gamble?[/hv]

[hv=d=n&v=n&s=skjhkj65dqj642c92]133|100|Scoring: IMP In an uncontested auction, partner is dealer and opens 1♣. I bid 1♦. Partner bids 1♠. I bid 2N. Partner bids 3N. It is passed out. Questions: 1. Was 1♦ an appropriate initial response? 2. Does anyone initially repsond 1N and then 2N to show 11-12 hcp and desire to play in notrumps.? I did not because of two doubletons. 3. Is 2N bid correct? I thought 1N would show much weaker hand.[/hv]

[hv=d=n&v=n&n=sakj9h3da43cakq96&s=sq4hkj952dkqj85ct]133|200|Scoring: IMP Partner (North) opens 2♣. I bid 2♦ waiting. Partner bids 3♣. I bid 3♥. Partner bids 3N. I bid 6N. Opponents are silent throughout. Questions: 1. Should I have bid anything other than 2♦ waiting? That is what I play but sometimes you can make a positive bid. 2. Should I have bid 3♦ instead of 3♥ after North's rebid? 3. If auction had gone 2♣, 2[D], 3♣, 3♦ what would North's next b id have been?[/hv]

Say, I have a hand that could be opened 1♣ or 1♦ but the textbook correct opening is 1♣. What would you all think of the thought that maybe I should open the hand 1♦ because it allows partner to show he has a GF hand on his first bid whereas after 1♣ partner has no GF bids? Could someone please comment on the soundess or unsoundness of this idea?

[hv=d=n&v=n&n=saq942hkj984dc982&s=sj865hqt3dt73ckq6]133|200|Scoring: IMP This is with a semi-regular partner. It is passed out to West who opens 1♦. Partner bids 2♦. East doubles. I bid 2♠. West bids 3♦. Partner bids 3♠. It is passed out. Could someone comment on the bidding please?[/hv]

Just to clarify: Partner opens 2♣, his RHO intervenes at the two level and I should pass if I have one trick and double if I have no tricks? What if I have two tricks to add to partners expected 8.5 tricks?

From my experience, what people call Standard American Yellow Card is most commonly played. However, SAYC is very specific and most people who claim to play it actually play standard American which is something like: 5 card majors 1N 15-17hcp 2N 20-21 hcp 2C 22hcp+, when responding to 2C opener 2D waiting is probably most common weak 2 openers (other than the above mentioned 2C) Jacoby 2N Splinters Roman Keycard Blackwood 1430/3014 Unusual Notrump Michaels Cuebid Stayman Transfers over 1N Anyterm you do not understand please google. If I have stated anything incorrectly or people wish to add for the sake of comprehensiveness then please correct/add.

Thanks to everyone who replied. Impossible Negative versus Unusual Positive. Which approach is more common? Would partner state which approach he plays on his profile at BBO?

As I understood it, in response to my 1♣: 1♥ is 8hcp+ and is game forcing. I did not know it said anything about hearts. 1♦ is 0-7 hcp and tells me game is not on.

Instead of reading Watson for the fourth time, try different authors. Root, Kantar, Mollo/Gardner, Hayden Truscott all have good play of the hand books. Different examples and different writing styles can help a concept sink in. Do all the quiz problems, make an effort to solve them, try not to flip to the answer until you are really stuck. This is an approach have used for other games. One book 20 times or 20 books once. For bridge, I have opted for the one book 20 times route.

I have been playing bridge for 18 months in all. I read a Jeremy Flint book on Acol several times as my first encounter with bridge was live in the UK. Well, I went online and learnt Standard American. I then switched to 2/1 in July. I am on my fourth reading of Watson's The Play Of The Hand. I play everyday but study maybe 1 hour for every 10 hours that I play. What should the ratio between study and play be? Any and all advice appreciated.

I am playing standard precision with no extras. It would be nice to have a schema for replies to the 1♣ 1♥ sequence when I as opener know that game is on.

The problem with my assuming ♥ was his second suit is that I put us in game and we could only have 6 hearts between us! How am I to know ♥ is his first suit? Why is ♠ not his first suit? He bid ♠ spades first after his conventional 1♥ (telling me game is on).

[hv=d=n&v=n&s=saha6dk98765cak95]133|100|Scoring: IMP This is my very first hand of precision. I am dealer. I open 1♣. Partner responds 1♥. Game is on. I rebid my longest suit, 2♦. Partner rebids 2♠. I am happy enough in no trumps so I bid 2N. Partner bids 3♥. I take this to be his second suit, and put him in game, 4♥. Could someone please evaluate my bidding and my reasoning?[/hv]

I played my first hand of precision today. I am interested in what gadgets to use. For example, playing 2/1 I use such things as Unusual NT, RKB 1430, Smolen Transfers etc... Also what carding and discarding conventions do most precision players use? Summary: what are the most commonly used Conventions that precison players use to fine tune their system(s)?

I cannot see the purpose of bidding cheapest King if I have 4 keycards. Is it to keep open some kind of Grand Slam try. Please elaborate.

[hv=d=e&v=n&s=sakq965ha2daq9ct8]133|100|Scoring: IMP This is my 2nd hand with this particular unknown Dutch partner. I open in 3rd seat with 2♣. Partner bids 2♥. I bid 2♠. Partner rebids 3♣. I take this as some kind of double negative and rebid 3♠ and expect it to be passed out there. Partner initiates 1430 RKB with 4N. I reply 5♣. He signs off with 5♠. I bid 6♠ as I have four keycards not one. Questions: 1. Assuming he is weak, was 3♠ correct? 2. Assuming he has 2 tricks and 5 cards in hearts, what should I have been bidding after his 2♥ bid and subsequent 3♣ bid? [/hv]

I am very interested in the idea of 5♥ asking for trump quality. Presumably, if partner is good he bids 6♥ and passes if poor. Is this a recognized convention or a good commonsense solution to bidding a hand I am having difficulty with?

I do not understand why I would bid 3♠ first. I have no spades! Please explain. From another post, it appears 3♠ is a splinter but I need a spade to splinter yes? or is it ok to "lie"?

[hv=d=n&v=n&s=shat42dakq652ca86]133|100|Scoring: IMP I open in 3rd seat with 1♦. Regular partner bids 1♥. I bid 4N RKB1430. Partner responds 5♦. I place in 6♥. Opponents are silent throughout. How bad/good was my placing of contract in heart slam?[/hv]