gurgistan

Thanks for two very good answers. What hand does East need to just pass the 3N? Does he need to have first/second round control in the majors and his lengthier minor?

This is from today's The Times of London. Teams [hv=pc=n&e=sk2hkj62dj973c942&d=w&v=n&b=12&a=3np4c]133|200[/hv] (I have not given the whole of the bidding as it is not relevant to my question.) Clearly, East does not think Partner's Gambling 3N is doable. So he bails, fair enough. Could someone tell me what East would have needed to pass 3N as it looks doable enough to me? I have only recently started playing Gambling 3N but it comes up so rarely anyways.

I love this game. There is so much to learn. I am indebted to all who replied.

Thanks guys! I think I get it. 3♠ is the bid as with his strong jump shift, I would bid 4♠ with 3-card support so 3♠ shows only 2-card support and Partner should not go to 4♠, he would bid 3N and we are right-sided. Also, the conclusion seems to be that 4♥ cannot be found without some prior agreed method for this spot.

[hv=pc=n&w=sk7h532dat962c962&e=saq983hakjt4d8ckq&d=n&v=0&b=1&a=p1sp1np3hp3nppp]266|200[/hv] Partner is a random unknown. I read his profile. We are playing 2/1. Do we ever find the 8-card heart fit here? I can't see beyond bidding 3N.

I am having difficulty showing a game force as responder over a 1m opener. Over 1C, I bid 1M, I guess unless 2C or 3N is appropriate. Over 1D, I still have the 1M, 3N and inverted minors options but I can also go 2C (I play it as 2/1 gf) but my 2C has to be a real suit ie four cards long yes?

There is a rule of 2, 3 and 4 established by Ely Culbertson for making opening pre-empts. However, it seems to give different opening bids to normal methods: caveat, as I understand it. For example, holding SAKQJxx Hxxx Dxx Cxx you have a 7 loser hand. With favourable vulnerabilty Culbertson's rule seems to suggest it can be opened 4S! Whereas, normal methods have us opening 2S as you would expect. What am I failing to understand? Or is it just a case of a different standard produces a different result?

Thank you very much for this. You explained it perfectly.

I have noticed that in SAYC 2N/1m is made with 13-15hcp and 3N/1m is made with 16-17hcp. In 2/1 it is 2N/1m is made with 10-12hcp and 3N/1m is made with 13-15hcp. Why the different standards in the two separate systems?

This.

There are all sorts of pre-emptive bids out there. Weak twos, Gambling 3N, Bergen raises to 1M, etc. Are we taking vulnerability into account for all of them?

Zelandakh, you have done me a great service. Thank you.

I play TABS without any real regard to its efficacy because it makes precision what it is.

Two reasons: 1. I am not particularly comfortable responding to 2♣ openers. 2. Less than 10 hands in with an unknown partner, decided to KISS (keep it simple, stupid). I am very interested in the 3rd Rnd Ht Ctrl ask. I have never come across 3rd Rnd Ctrl asks before. You bypass 5N because knowing that you possess all four kings is less important than knowing you have five winners in hearts, yes? Is this a common agreement between established partnerships? It seems very clever. With the right sort of hand a grand slam could be reached even missing a side suit king!

I learnt a lot from the responses so far. Thank you for throwing light on my darkness. Yes, it is IMPs. Mr Ace states that as I did not set the trump suit then my 4NT is not 1430 but merely Blackwood. Is this treatment standard? Would anyone please suggest a full bidding sequence? The combined hands are: [hv=pc=n&s=saqt98hakj94d4cak&n=sk62hqt5dakj92ct8]133|200[/hv]

[hv=pc=n&n=sk62hqt5dakj92ct8&d=e&v=b&b=10&a=p2cp2dp2hp4np5cp5np6hp7n]133|200[/hv] When Partner (who is a random unknown with a reasonably filled in profile playing 2/1 and 1430) opens 2♣ my first thought is OMG we have 36hcp between us, is a Grand Slam on? I play waiting 2♦, he shows ♥. I instigate 1430 and conclude in mounting excitement that he has the other 4 keycards as opposed to 1. I ask for kings and he shows 2. I realize he must be counting the trump king twice. I have the trump Queen. Without further ado, I convert to 7N. Was converting to 7N wise? Was bidding at the 7 level compulsory even if not 7N?

Somebody overbids and I penalty double them. We set them. We earn IMPs. However, it feels strangely unsatisfying. After all, if they hadn't overbid, there would be nothing to penalize. However, here are two recent doubles that gave me some satisfaction. Hand 1: bidding went LHO opening 1♣/♦, Partner 2♥, RHO 3N, I double. I had ♥Axx and outside honours in all the suits and figured that I win the first round of ♥ and then maybe partner wins 2nd round or not but either way I get to lead a 3rd ♥ to him when I win in one of my other suits. Hand 2: bidding went me 1♣, LHO X, Partner 1♠, RHO 3N, I double. I simply figured that opponents did not have 25hcp for 3N. I had 13hcp and partner is showing 6-9hcp. I set opponents in both hands and was pleased with getting to the penalty double. So, tell me, is there an art to the penalty double?

Hi guys, So I am learning Wei Precision and it has many faults one of them being Impossible Negatives, as you do not get to show it if opener's RHO intervenes. However, it occurs to me that UNLESS you have an ESTABLISHED PARTNERSHIP playing an agreed standard for Unusual Positives then Impossible Negatives are a good fall back as it is difficult to understand an Unsual Positives system described to you at the table. What is the nearest thing to a universal standard for Unsual Positives? Please note that this is NOT the same question as "What system of Unusual Positives should I be playing?". BTW, I play 2♥, 2♠, 3♣, 3♦ as Unusual Positives with the bid suit denoting a singleton in the suit above it. I am playhing it with 8hcp+.

Many thanks all for the excellent responses.

I am currently learning Precision and I am told various bids are made if balanced and others if unbalanced. I want to know how the hand shape 5422 is thought of amongst precision players. Is it balanced or not?

I cannot help be reminded of the Terence Reese cheating scandal in our very own world of bridge. Anyone unaware of it, should just google.

We are playing Precision. Partner opens 1♣, he has 16chp+ balanced or unbalanced, his rebid will show. I have 17hcp and a 5-card suit, so I bid 1♠. (Not sure this is best, but there you go.) Partner rebids 1N which shows 17-19 balanced. I use Gerber 4♣. Partner rebids 4♠ showing 2 Aces. I have a brain freeze and bid 6N. We make with an overtrick as do most tables. I failed to bid 5♣ to ask for kings and was wondering if it would have let me find 7N. Looking at the hand afterwards, it seems partner would have rebid 5♠ at which point I know that we have 4 aces, 4 kings and I have a Queen that becomes a definite winner= 9 tricks. I also know our combined point count is 34-36. It seems there is no way to get to 7N via Gerber. Is this correct or does someone play a treatment that allows it.

I have decided to play the Unsual Positives treatment that uses 2♥, 2♠, 3♣, 3♦ to show 4441 and 8hcp+ with the bid suit indicating that the singleton is in the suit above it. What I would like to know is what becomes of the hand types that would normally make those bids in Wei's original Precision. 2♥ and 2♠ would normally show a 6-card suit with 4-7hcp. With 7hcp I am happy to bid these hands as 1♥ and/or 1♠. What if the hcp is weaker? Are they going into 1♦? 3♣ and 3♦ would normally show a 7-card suit with 4-7hcp. Would all of these hcp counts become 2♣ and/or 2♦ as appropriate? Could someone throw light on my darkness? Many thanks for any and all relevant posts.

This is a detailed and considrered post. Allow me to thank you for this.

May I ask what is the most common non-natural system? I just took it for granted it was Precision. Does anyone have any stats for the popularity of various non-natural systems? Much obliged.